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Question 41.

Choose the option that best corrects the underlined portion of the sentence:
The collection of antique maps were displayed in the museum’s main gallery throughout the summer.

1. were displayed
   2. was displayed
   3. have displayed
   4. display

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The true subject is collection, which is singular. The phrase “of antique maps” provides additional information but does not change the grammatical number of the subject. Therefore, the singular verb phrase was displayed is required. Choice 1 incorrectly agrees with the plural noun “maps” instead of the actual subject. Choice 3 changes both tense and voice and does not fit the sentence. Choice 4 is also incorrect because “collection” requires the singular verb “displays” in the present tense. ACT English often places a plural noun close to the verb to distract you from the actual subject. A useful strategy is to temporarily remove prepositional phrases: “The collection was displayed.” Once the sentence is simplified, the correct agreement becomes much easier to identify.

Question 42.

Which sentence is the clearest and most concise revision?
At this point in time, the committee is currently considering whether or not it should possibly postpone the event.

1. The committee is considering whether to postpone the event.
   2. At this point in time, the committee currently considers whether or not postponement should possibly occur.
   3. The committee is now currently considering the possibility of whether the event might possibly be postponed.
   4. The event is being considered by the committee in regard to a possible postponement.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 preserves the complete meaning while removing unnecessary repetition and wordiness. “At this point in time” and “currently” express the same idea, so both are unnecessary. “Whether or not” can usually be shortened to “whether,” and “possibly” is redundant because “considering whether” already expresses uncertainty. Choice 2 retains most of the original clutter. Choice 3 is even more repetitive, using “now,” “currently,” “possibility,” and “possibly.” Choice 4 relies on awkward passive construction. ACT English rewards concise language when no meaning is lost. When several answer choices are grammatically acceptable, prefer the one that expresses the idea directly without redundant phrases, vague wording, or unnecessary passive voice.

Question 43.

Choose the best punctuation for the sentence:
The research team reached an unexpected conclusion ___ the supposedly rare frog was actually common in several nearby wetlands.

1. conclusion, the
   2. conclusion; the
   3. conclusion: the
   4. conclusion the

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The words before the blank form a complete sentence: “The research team reached an unexpected conclusion.” The material after the blank explains exactly what that conclusion was. A colon is therefore the best punctuation because it introduces an explanation after a complete independent clause. Choice 1 creates a comma splice by joining two independent clauses with only a comma. Choice 2 uses a semicolon, which can grammatically join two independent clauses, but it does not express the explanatory relationship as precisely as a colon. Choice 4 creates a run-on sentence. On ACT English, remember that a colon can introduce a list, explanation, or example, but only if the words before the colon form a complete sentence.

Question 44.

Choose the transition that best completes the paragraph:
The city’s bike-sharing program initially operated only in the downtown district. Over the next two years, officials added stations near several universities and residential neighborhoods. ___, the number of registered riders increased substantially.

1. Consequently
   2. Nevertheless
   3. In contrast
   4. For example

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The paragraph presents expansion of the bike-sharing network followed by an increase in registered riders. The second development is presented as a consequence of the first, so Consequently is the best transition. “Nevertheless” would signal an unexpected contrast, which is not present. “In contrast” would introduce an opposing idea, but the increase in riders logically follows the expansion. “For example” would introduce a specific illustration rather than a result. ACT transition questions test relationships between ideas more than vocabulary. Before choosing, identify the logical connection in simple terms. Here, the structure is “the service expanded, so participation increased,” making a cause-and-effect transition the best fit.

Question 45.

Which sentence best supports the writer’s goal of showing that a scientist’s discovery was accidental?

1. The scientist had published several papers before beginning the experiment.
   2. She carefully labeled every container in the laboratory.
   3. While testing a different hypothesis, she noticed an unexpected reaction in a sample she had planned to discard.
   4. The laboratory contained modern microscopes and computers.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Choice 3 directly demonstrates that the discovery happened unexpectedly while the scientist was investigating something else. The fact that she noticed a reaction in a sample she had intended to discard strongly supports the idea of accidental discovery. Choice 1 provides background about her experience but says nothing about how the discovery happened. Choice 2 describes careful procedure and actually makes the discovery seem more planned. Choice 4 describes equipment rather than the circumstances of the discovery. ACT rhetorical-purpose questions require matching the evidence to the stated goal. The strongest answer is usually the one that provides a specific detail illustrating the exact idea the writer wants to emphasize.

Question 46.

If 4x+11=39, what is the value of x?

1. 5
   2. 7
   3. 9
   4. 12

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Start with 4x+11=39. Subtract 11 from both sides: 4x=28. Then divide both sides by 4: x=7. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. You can verify by substitution: 4(7)+11=28+11=39. Choice 1 would produce 31, Choice 3 would produce 47, and Choice 4 would produce 59. ACT Math problems involving linear equations are often straightforward, but rushing can lead to arithmetic mistakes. Work step by step, apply the same operation to both sides, and use substitution when practical to confirm the result.

Question 47.

A computer that normally costs $900 is discounted by 20%. What is the sale price?

1. $180
   2. $700
   3. $720
   4. $780

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A 20% discount means the customer pays 80% of the original price. Calculate 0.80900=720. Therefore, the sale price is $720, Choice 3. Another method is to calculate the discount first: 0.20900=180, then subtract 900-180=720. Choice 1 is the amount of the discount, not the final price. Choice 2 represents a larger reduction, and Choice 4 represents a smaller one. ACT percentage questions often include the amount of change as a tempting answer. Always check whether the problem asks for the discount itself or the final amount after the percentage change.

Question 48.

A triangle has a base of 14 units and a height of 9 units. What is its area?

1. 23 square units
   2. 63 square units
   3. 126 square units
   4. 252 square units

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The area of a triangle is A=12bh. Substitute the given base and height: A=12(14)(9). First multiply 149=126, then divide by 2 to get 63. Therefore, the area is 63 square units, Choice 2. Choice 3 results from forgetting the factor of one-half. Choice 1 incorrectly adds the base and height. Choice 4 doubles the product rather than halving it. On ACT Math, formula questions often test whether you recognize the correct geometric relationship. Also pay attention to units: because this is area, the answer must be in square units.

Question 49.

If 2x=32, what is the value of x?

1. 4
   2. 5
   3. 6
   4. 8

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The equation asks for the exponent that makes 2 equal 32. List powers of 2: 21=2, 22=4, 23=8, 24=16, and 25=32. Therefore, x=5, so Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 gives 16, Choice 3 gives 64, and Choice 4 gives 256. ACT Math frequently includes exponent questions that can be solved quickly by recognizing common powers. Knowing powers of 2, 3, 5, and 10 can save time. When values are unfamiliar, you can also use repeated multiplication or logarithms if needed, but this problem is designed for direct recognition.

Question 50.

A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. If one marble is selected at random, what is the probability that it is blue?

1. 210
   2. 310
   3. 510
   4. 710

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

There are 5+3+2=10 marbles in total. Of these, 3 are blue. Probability is calculated as favorable outcomes divided by total possible outcomes, so the probability of selecting a blue marble is 310. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 uses the number of green marbles, while Choice 3 uses the number of red marbles. Choice 4 does not correspond to the requested event. ACT probability questions often become easy once the sample space is counted correctly. Always identify the total number of equally likely outcomes first, then count only those that satisfy the condition.

Question 51.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
For years, Lena avoided speaking at community meetings even though she often had strong opinions about neighborhood projects. She preferred sending emails because she could revise her words before anyone read them. When plans were announced to remove several old trees from her street, however, Lena decided to attend a public meeting. Her voice shook during her first sentence, but she continued. By the end of her remarks, she had explained why the trees mattered to residents and proposed an alternative plan. Several neighbors applauded, and Lena later volunteered to serve on the planning committee.

Which statement best describes Lena’s development?

1. She becomes more willing to speak publicly after confronting an issue she cares about.
   2. She decides written communication is always better than speaking.
   3. She loses interest in neighborhood planning.
   4. She becomes angry because the meeting is canceled.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

At the beginning, Lena avoids speaking publicly and prefers email because it gives her more control. The threat to the neighborhood trees motivates her to speak at a meeting despite her nervousness. She successfully presents her ideas and then takes an even more active role by joining the planning committee. Choice 1 accurately captures this change from reluctance to greater public involvement. Choice 2 contradicts her decision to speak. Choice 3 is the opposite of her increased participation, and Choice 4 describes an event that never occurs. ACT Reading character-development questions often ask you to compare a character’s initial attitude with the final one. Look for evidence of change in actions as well as emotions.

Question 52.

Based on the passage in Question 51, why does the author mention that Lena’s “voice shook”?

1. To show that Lena was still nervous even though she chose to speak
   2. To suggest that Lena had forgotten what she wanted to say
   3. To prove that the audience could not hear her
   4. To show that Lena was angry with her neighbors

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The detail that Lena’s voice shook emphasizes that speaking publicly was difficult for her. She did not suddenly become fearless; instead, she acted despite her nervousness. That makes her development more meaningful because courage is shown through continuing even while uncomfortable. Choice 1 therefore best explains the detail’s purpose. Choice 2 is unsupported because Lena completes her remarks successfully. Choice 3 is also unsupported, and Choice 4 confuses nervousness with anger. ACT Reading questions about specific details often test how those details contribute to characterization or tone. Here, the physical sign of nervousness reinforces Lena’s earlier reluctance and makes her later confidence more significant.

Question 53.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Scientists studying desert plants have found that some species can remain inactive for months until rainfall arrives. During dry periods, these plants conserve water by slowing growth and reducing the activity of their leaves. When rain finally comes, growth can resume rapidly. These adaptations do not eliminate the challenges of desert life, but they allow plants to survive conditions that would be difficult for many other species.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Desert plants cannot survive without constant rainfall.
   2. Some desert plants use specialized adaptations to survive long dry periods.
   3. All desert plants grow rapidly throughout the year.
   4. Desert rainfall is more frequent than rainfall in forests.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The passage focuses on adaptations that help desert plants survive dry conditions. It explains that some plants reduce growth and leaf activity during drought, then resume growth after rain. Choice 2 captures this central idea. Choice 1 contradicts the passage because the plants survive without constant rainfall. Choice 3 also contradicts the description of reduced growth during dry periods. Choice 4 introduces a comparison with forests that the passage never makes. For ACT Reading main-idea questions, choose the answer that covers the majority of the passage rather than a single detail. The passage is primarily about survival strategies, not rainfall frequency or a universal claim about all desert species.

Question 54.

In the passage from Question 53, the phrase “These adaptations” refers to:

1. reducing growth and leaf activity during dry periods and resuming growth after rain
   2. increasing rainfall in desert regions
   3. moving plants to wetter climates
   4. eliminating all challenges of desert life

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The phrase “These adaptations” refers back to the survival strategies described immediately before it: conserving water by slowing growth and reducing leaf activity during dry periods, then resuming growth when rain arrives. Choice 1 accurately summarizes those strategies. Choice 2 is impossible because plants do not increase rainfall. Choice 3 is not discussed, and Choice 4 contradicts the passage, which explicitly says the adaptations do not eliminate all challenges. ACT pronoun and reference questions require looking backward to identify the nearest logical antecedent. The best answer should accurately capture what the pronoun or phrase refers to without adding new information.

Question 55.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 53?

1. Water conservation is important to the survival of some desert plants.
   2. Desert plants require more water than tropical plants.
   3. Rainfall always causes every desert plant to flower.
   4. Desert plants cannot grow quickly under any conditions.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage describes plants slowing growth and reducing leaf activity during dry periods specifically to conserve water. This strongly supports the inference that water conservation is important to survival. Choice 2 makes a comparison to tropical plants that is not discussed. Choice 3 is too absolute and introduces flowering, which the passage never mentions. Choice 4 is contradicted by the statement that growth can resume rapidly after rainfall. ACT inference questions require answers that are supported by evidence even if they are not stated word-for-word. Avoid choices that introduce new comparisons, absolute claims, or details absent from the passage.

Question 56.

A student investigates how light intensity affects photosynthesis in an aquatic plant. The student places identical plants under lamps at 20%, 40%, 60%, and 80% brightness and records the number of oxygen bubbles produced per minute. What is the dependent variable?

1. Lamp brightness
   2. Type of plant
   3. Number of oxygen bubbles produced per minute
   4. Number of lamps

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The dependent variable is the outcome measured in response to changes in the independent variable. Here, the student deliberately changes lamp brightness, so brightness is the independent variable. The number of oxygen bubbles produced per minute is the measured outcome and therefore the dependent variable. Choice 2 describes a controlled variable because the plants are identical. Choice 4 is not the measured outcome. ACT Science frequently asks students to distinguish manipulated and measured variables. A simple rule is: the independent variable is what the researcher changes, while the dependent variable is what the researcher measures to determine the effect of that change.

Question 57.

Why should the student in Question 56 use identical plants for each light level?

1. To reduce differences caused by plant size or species
   2. To make the lamps brighter
   3. To create an additional independent variable
   4. To guarantee the same bubble count in every trial

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Using identical or highly similar plants helps control variables that could otherwise influence photosynthesis. If one plant were much larger or belonged to a different species, differences in oxygen production might result from those characteristics rather than light intensity. By keeping the plants similar, the experiment better isolates the effect of brightness. Choice 2 is unrelated, Choice 3 would weaken the experiment by adding another independent variable, and Choice 4 is incorrect because different light levels are expected to produce potentially different results. ACT Science often tests why variables are controlled: the purpose is to reduce alternative explanations for the observed outcome.

Question 58.

The experiment in Question 56 produced the following average bubble counts per minute:
20% brightness: 8
40% brightness: 14
60% brightness: 19
80% brightness: 20
Which conclusion is best supported?

1. Photosynthesis increased as brightness increased, but the increase became smaller at the highest brightness tested.
   2. Photosynthesis decreased steadily as brightness increased.
   3. The 20% setting produced the highest rate.
   4. Doubling brightness always exactly doubled oxygen production.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The bubble count rises from 8 to 14 to 19 to 20 as brightness increases. This indicates that photosynthetic activity increased with light intensity over the range tested. However, the increase from 60% to 80% is only one bubble per minute, much smaller than the earlier increases. Choice 1 accurately describes both features of the data. Choice 2 reverses the trend, Choice 3 contradicts the measurements, and Choice 4 is false because doubling brightness does not double the bubble count. ACT Science data questions reward precise descriptions of observed trends. Avoid conclusions that claim an exact mathematical relationship unless the data clearly support it.

Question 59.

Scientist A argues that a decrease in a butterfly population is caused by loss of flowering plants. Scientist B argues that pesticide exposure is the main cause. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist A?

1. Butterfly numbers decline most in areas where flowering plant abundance has fallen sharply, even where pesticide use has remained stable.
   2. Pesticide use has increased in several farming regions.
   3. Some butterflies have brightly colored wings.
   4. Average summer temperature has changed slightly.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Scientist A specifically argues that reduced flowering plants are responsible for the butterfly decline. Choice 1 directly supports that mechanism because butterfly numbers fall where flowering plants decline, even when pesticide use remains stable. This reduces pesticide exposure as a competing explanation. Choice 2 would more strongly support Scientist B. Choice 3 is irrelevant, and Choice 4 introduces another variable without connecting it clearly to the proposed explanation. ACT Science conflicting-viewpoints questions require matching evidence to the exact claim. The strongest evidence is usually the one that directly measures the variable emphasized by one scientist while controlling or holding steady the competing explanation.

Question 60.

A researcher tests a new plant fertilizer. Group A receives fertilizer and is kept at 28°C. Group B receives no fertilizer and is kept at 20°C. Group A grows taller. Why is the conclusion that the fertilizer caused the greater growth not fully justified?

1. The groups differ in both fertilizer treatment and temperature.
   2. Plants cannot be measured reliably.
   3. Fertilizer can never influence growth.
   4. Temperature has no effect on plants.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The experiment changes two major variables at once: fertilizer use and temperature. Because Group A receives fertilizer and is kept warmer than Group B, the researcher cannot determine whether the greater growth was caused by fertilizer, temperature, or a combination of both. This is a confounding-variable problem. To isolate the effect of fertilizer, both groups should be kept at the same temperature and differ mainly in fertilizer treatment. Choices 2, 3, and 4 are unsupported absolute statements. ACT Science often tests whether experimental designs justify causal conclusions. Strong experiments keep important conditions constant so that observed differences can reasonably be linked to the independent variable being tested.