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Question 81.

Choose the option that best corrects the underlined portion of the sentence:
The number of students applying to the engineering program have increased significantly during the past three years.

1. have increased
   2. has increased
   3. were increasing
   4. increase

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The subject is number, which is singular. The phrase “of students applying to the engineering program” modifies the subject but does not change its grammatical number. Therefore, the correct verb phrase is has increased. Choice 1 incorrectly agrees with the nearby plural noun “students.” Choice 3 changes the tense and suggests an ongoing past action rather than a change continuing into the present. Choice 4 uses a plural verb form and does not match the singular subject. ACT English often tests subject-verb agreement by inserting long phrases between the subject and verb. A reliable strategy is to temporarily remove the modifying phrase: “The number has increased.” This makes the required agreement clear. Also remember the distinction between “the number of,” which is singular, and “a number of,” which generally takes a plural verb.

Question 82.

Which sentence is the most concise and grammatically correct revision?
The meeting was postponed until a later time in the future because several committee members were absent and not present.

1. The meeting was postponed because several committee members were absent.
   2. The meeting was postponed until a later future time because several committee members were absent and not present.
   3. Due to the fact that several committee members were absent, the meeting was postponed until a later time in the future.
   4. The meeting, because committee members were not present and were absent, was postponed until later in the future.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 expresses the entire essential meaning without redundant wording. “Until a later time in the future” is repetitive because postponement already means moving something to a later time. Likewise, “absent and not present” says the same thing twice. Choice 2 keeps both redundancies. Choice 3 remains unnecessarily wordy with “due to the fact that” and “later time in the future.” Choice 4 is awkward and repeats the same ideas. ACT English frequently tests concision. The best answer is not simply the shortest one; it must also preserve the intended meaning and remain grammatically correct. When reviewing choices, look for repeated concepts, unnecessary introductory phrases, and needless combinations of synonyms. Direct wording is usually preferred when it communicates the idea completely.

Question 83.

Choose the best punctuation for the sentence:
The expedition required three essential supplies ___ water, navigation equipment, and emergency food.

1. supplies, water
   2. supplies; water
   3. supplies: water
   4. supplies water

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A colon correctly introduces the list because the wording before the blank forms a complete independent clause: “The expedition required three essential supplies.” The items after the blank identify those supplies. Choice 3 is therefore correct. Choice 1 uses only a comma, which does not clearly signal the introduction of a formal list. Choice 2 uses a semicolon, but the material after the semicolon is not an independent clause. Choice 4 omits necessary punctuation and makes the sentence awkward. On ACT English, colons often introduce lists, examples, explanations, or elaborations. The key rule is that the material before the colon must be grammatically complete. If you stopped at “supplies,” the sentence would still stand on its own, so a colon is appropriate.

Question 84.

Choose the transition that best completes the paragraph:
The community center added free evening tutoring sessions for local high school students. Attendance increased steadily throughout the semester. ___, the center extended the program into the summer.

1. Consequently
   2. In contrast
   3. Nevertheless
   4. For example

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The summer extension is presented as a result of the program’s growing attendance. Therefore, Consequently is the best transition because it signals cause and effect. Choice 2, “In contrast,” would introduce an opposing idea, but the final sentence follows logically from the success described earlier. Choice 3, “Nevertheless,” suggests an unexpected contrast despite previous information, which does not fit. Choice 4, “For example,” would introduce an illustration rather than an outcome. ACT transition questions test whether you can identify the logical relationship between surrounding sentences. A helpful strategy is to describe that relationship in plain language before considering the choices. Here, the program became popular, so the center continued it into summer. That makes a result transition the most precise choice.

Question 85.

Which sentence best supports the writer’s goal of emphasizing how quickly a wildfire spread?

1. Firefighters arrived from several neighboring counties.
   2. The wildfire crossed nearly five miles of dry grassland in less than an hour.
   3. The region contains many species of native birds.
   4. Residents had attended fire-safety meetings earlier in the year.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 directly emphasizes speed by giving both a distance and a short period of time: nearly five miles in less than an hour. This concrete evidence allows the reader to understand how rapidly the fire advanced. Choice 1 concerns the response effort rather than the wildfire’s speed. Choice 3 provides ecological background unrelated to the stated goal. Choice 4 discusses prior preparation but does not describe the fire’s movement. ACT rhetorical-purpose questions ask which sentence most effectively accomplishes a specific writing objective. The best answer usually contains details directly tied to the stated purpose. When the goal involves speed, scale, difficulty, or importance, numerical or concrete descriptive evidence is often more effective than general information.

Question 86.

If 6x+8=50, what is the value of x?

1. 5
   2. 6
   3. 7
   4. 8

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Start with 6x+8=50. Subtract 8 from both sides to get 6x=42. Then divide both sides by 6: x=7. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. You can verify by substitution: 6(7)+8=42+8=50. Choice 1 would produce 38, Choice 2 would produce 44, and Choice 4 would produce 56. ACT Math linear-equation questions are generally straightforward if you isolate the variable carefully. Undo addition or subtraction first, then multiplication or division. If time permits, substitute your answer into the original equation to check it. This simple verification can prevent losing points to an arithmetic mistake.

Question 87.

A bicycle originally priced at $480 is marked up by 25%. What is the new price?

1. $500
   2. $540
   3. $600
   4. $625

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A 25% markup means adding 25% of the original price to the original amount. Calculate the increase: 0.25480=120. Then add it to the original price: 480+120=600. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. Another method is to multiply by 1.25: 4801.25=600. Choice 1 represents only a small increase, Choice 2 corresponds to a 12.5% increase, and Choice 4 is too high. ACT percentage questions often test whether students understand the difference between the percentage change itself and the final amount after the change. For increases, multiply by more than 1; for decreases, multiply by less than 1.

Question 88.

A rectangular garden is 18 feet long and 12 feet wide. What is its perimeter?

1. 30 feet
   2. 60 feet
   3. 216 feet
   4. 432 feet

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The perimeter of a rectangle is the total distance around its four sides. Use P=2L+2W. Substituting the dimensions gives P=2(18)+2(12)=36+24=60 feet. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 simply adds the length and width once and therefore represents only half the perimeter. Choice 3 is the area, calculated as 1812=216, not the perimeter. Choice 4 doubles that area and is unrelated to the required measurement. ACT Math often tests whether students distinguish area from perimeter. Perimeter is measured in linear units, while area is measured in square units.

Question 89.

The average of 4 test scores is 82. If three of the scores are 76, 84, and 88, what is the fourth score?

1. 78
   2. 80
   3. 82
   4. 84

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

If the average of four scores is 82, the total of all four scores must be 824=328. Add the three known scores: 76+84+88=248. Subtract this from the required total: 328-248=80. Therefore, the fourth score is 80, Choice 2. Choice 3 may be tempting because 82 is the average, but the missing score does not have to equal the average. ACT Math average problems are often easier if you convert the average into a total first. Remember the relationship: average = total ÷ number of values. Rearranging gives total = average × number of values.

Question 90.

A circle has a diameter of 14 units. What is its circumference?

1. 7
   2. 14
   3. 28
   4. 49

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The circumference of a circle can be calculated using C=d, where d is the diameter. Since the diameter is 14, C=14. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. You could also use C=2r. The radius is half the diameter, so r=7, giving 2(7)=14. Choice 1 uses only the radius multiplied by , while Choice 3 doubles the correct answer. Choice 4 relates to 72 and is more closely connected to area. ACT geometry questions often test whether you select the correct circle formula. Circumference is a linear measurement, while area uses r2.

Question 91.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Daniel had spent years photographing city buildings, usually focusing on dramatic skylines and modern towers. During a weekend trip to a small coastal town, however, he became fascinated by weathered doors, faded signs, and narrow alleyways. At first, he considered these subjects too ordinary for serious photography. After reviewing his photographs, he noticed that the smaller details conveyed more about the town’s character than the sweeping landscape images did. When Daniel returned home, he began deliberately searching for overlooked details in his own city.

Which statement best describes Daniel’s change in perspective?

1. He begins to appreciate ordinary details as meaningful photographic subjects.
   2. He decides that city photography is no longer interesting.
   3. He concludes that landscapes are always better than close-up photographs.
   4. He decides to stop taking photographs while traveling.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Daniel initially focuses on dramatic architecture and considers ordinary details unworthy of serious photography. His experience in the coastal town changes that attitude. After reviewing his images, he realizes that weathered doors, signs, and alleys communicate something important about the place. He then applies this insight in his own city by deliberately seeking overlooked details. Choice 1 accurately captures that development. Choice 2 is incorrect because Daniel continues photographing cities. Choice 3 reverses his realization, and Choice 4 is unsupported. ACT Reading character-development questions often ask you to identify how a person’s viewpoint evolves. Look for contrasting words such as “at first,” “however,” and “after,” which often signal a shift in perspective.

Question 92.

Based on the passage in Question 91, why does the author mention Daniel’s decision to “search for overlooked details in his own city”?

1. To show that his experience changed his future approach to photography
   2. To suggest that he disliked the coastal town
   3. To prove that he stopped photographing buildings entirely
   4. To show that he lost interest in photography

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Daniel’s decision to seek overlooked details after returning home demonstrates that his new perspective was not temporary. The experience changed the way he approached photography afterward. Choice 1 therefore best explains the purpose of this final detail. Choice 2 contradicts the passage because the trip inspired him. Choice 3 goes too far; he changes his focus but does not necessarily stop photographing buildings. Choice 4 is the opposite of what happens because Daniel becomes more engaged with his craft. ACT Reading questions about the function of a detail often ask what that detail contributes to the passage. Here, the ending confirms the lasting effect of Daniel’s realization.

Question 93.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
For many years, scientists assumed that urban parks mainly benefited residents by providing places for exercise and recreation. More recent studies suggest that parks may also influence local temperatures. Trees and vegetation provide shade and release moisture into the air, helping reduce heat in surrounding areas. Researchers are now examining how park size, tree density, and location affect these cooling effects.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Urban parks may provide environmental benefits in addition to recreational ones.
   2. Urban parks are useful only for exercise.
   3. All city parks reduce temperatures by exactly the same amount.
   4. Researchers have stopped studying parks.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage begins with the traditional view of parks as recreational spaces and then introduces research showing that they may also reduce local temperatures. It further explains that scientists are investigating which park characteristics influence this cooling effect. Choice 1 captures this broader idea accurately. Choice 2 contradicts the newer research. Choice 3 makes an unsupported absolute claim because the passage specifically says researchers are studying how factors such as size and tree density affect cooling. Choice 4 is plainly false. ACT Reading main-idea questions require an answer that reflects the whole passage. Avoid choices that focus only on the first sentence or exaggerate a limited finding into a universal rule.

Question 94.

In the passage from Question 93, why are researchers studying park size, tree density, and location?

1. To determine which factors influence the cooling effect of parks
   2. To decide whether parks should eliminate recreational areas
   3. To prove that every park has identical vegetation
   4. To measure how many people exercise in each park

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage directly states that researchers are examining park size, tree density, and location to understand how these factors affect cooling. Therefore, Choice 1 is correct. Choice 2 introduces an issue that is not discussed. Choice 3 contradicts the idea that parks vary in characteristics. Choice 4 focuses on recreation rather than the environmental effect being studied. ACT Reading often asks why an author includes a particular set of details. The answer should connect those details to the surrounding argument. Here, the listed characteristics are variables researchers are evaluating to explain differences in temperature reduction.

Question 95.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 93?

1. Some park designs may provide greater cooling benefits than others.
   2. Every urban park has exactly the same environmental effect.
   3. Parks can eliminate all heat from cities.
   4. Tree density has no relationship to cooling.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Because researchers are studying how park size, tree density, and location affect cooling, it is reasonable to infer that different park designs may produce different levels of temperature reduction. Choice 1 is therefore supported. Choice 2 contradicts the need to study differences among parks. Choice 3 makes an extreme claim that the passage does not support. Choice 4 also conflicts with the fact that tree density is one of the variables under investigation. ACT inference questions require restrained reasoning: select the conclusion that logically follows from the evidence without going beyond it. Be cautious of absolute words such as “every,” “all,” and “no” unless the passage clearly justifies them.

Question 96.

A student investigates how the concentration of sugar in water affects the growth of yeast. Four containers receive sugar solutions of 0%, 5%, 10%, and 15%, while all other conditions are kept the same. What is the independent variable?

1. Yeast growth
   2. Sugar concentration
   3. Container size
   4. Observation time

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The independent variable is the factor deliberately changed by the researcher. Here, the student varies sugar concentration among 0%, 5%, 10%, and 15%. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Yeast growth is the dependent variable because it is the outcome being measured. Container size and observation time are controlled conditions if they are kept constant. ACT Science frequently tests the structure of experiments. A useful rule is: the independent variable is what the scientist manipulates, the dependent variable is what is measured, and controlled variables are kept the same to reduce alternative explanations.

Question 97.

Why should all four containers in Question 96 be kept at the same temperature?

1. To prevent temperature from affecting yeast growth differently among the groups
   2. To make sugar concentration identical
   3. To create another independent variable
   4. To ensure that no yeast grows

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Temperature can influence yeast activity, so it should be held constant if the experiment is intended to test only the effect of sugar concentration. If the containers were kept at different temperatures, differences in growth could be caused by temperature rather than sugar level. Choice 1 correctly describes the purpose of the control. Choice 2 is incorrect because sugar concentration is intentionally varied. Choice 3 would make the experiment less controlled, not more. Choice 4 contradicts the goal of measuring yeast growth. ACT Science experimental-design questions often ask why a condition is kept constant. Controlled variables improve the validity of comparisons by reducing confounding factors.

Question 98.

The yeast experiment produced the following average growth values after 24 hours:
0% sugar: 2 units
5% sugar: 8 units
10% sugar: 13 units
15% sugar: 11 units
Which conclusion is best supported by the data?

1. Growth increased from 0% to 10% sugar but decreased at 15%.
   2. Growth decreased continuously as sugar concentration increased.
   3. The 0% solution produced the greatest growth.
   4. Sugar concentration had no relationship with growth.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The measured growth values rise from 2 units at 0% sugar to 8 at 5% and 13 at 10%. At 15%, however, growth drops to 11 units. Therefore, Choice 1 accurately describes the observed pattern. Choice 2 is incorrect because growth initially increases rather than decreases. Choice 3 contradicts the data, since 0% produces the lowest value. Choice 4 is also inconsistent with the clear differences among treatments. ACT Science data interpretation questions often involve identifying non-linear patterns. Do not assume that an increase in the independent variable must always produce a continuous increase or decrease in the dependent variable. Read each value carefully.

Question 99.

Scientist A argues that a decrease in a fish population is mainly caused by higher water temperatures. Scientist B argues that pollution is the primary cause. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist A?

1. Fish numbers decline most sharply in locations where water temperature has risen while pollution levels remain relatively stable.
   2. Pollution levels have increased near several factories.
   3. The fish species feeds on insects and small crustaceans.
   4. Some sections of the river are deeper than others.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Scientist A specifically attributes the decline to rising water temperature. Choice 1 directly supports this explanation because it links declining fish numbers with higher temperatures while keeping pollution relatively stable. This reduces the competing pollution explanation proposed by Scientist B. Choice 2 would more strongly support Scientist B. Choices 3 and 4 provide background information but do not directly test either proposed cause. ACT Science conflicting-viewpoints questions require matching evidence to the exact mechanism described by a scientist. Strong evidence often supports one variable while holding a competing variable relatively constant.

Question 100.

A researcher tests whether a new nutrient solution increases plant growth. Group A receives the solution and 14 hours of light per day. Group B receives no solution and 8 hours of light per day. Group A grows taller. Why is it difficult to conclude that the nutrient solution caused the additional growth?

1. More than one important variable differed between the groups.
   2. Plant growth cannot be measured accurately.
   3. Nutrient solutions never affect plant growth.
   4. Longer light exposure always reduces growth.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The two groups differ in both nutrient treatment and light exposure. Because Group A receives the nutrient solution and six additional hours of light, the researcher cannot determine whether the increased growth was caused by the solution, the extra light, or both factors together. This is a classic confounding-variable problem. A stronger experiment would keep light exposure constant and vary only the nutrient solution. Choice 2 is false because plant height can be measured. Choices 3 and 4 make unsupported absolute claims. ACT Science frequently tests whether experimental designs justify causal conclusions. To establish cause more convincingly, the independent variable should be isolated while other relevant conditions are kept as similar as possible.