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Question 321.

Choose the sentence that correctly places the modifying phrase.

1. Walking through the crowded market, Elena noticed a vendor selling handmade baskets.
   2. Walking through the crowded market, handmade baskets were noticed by Elena.
   3. Elena noticed, walking through the crowded market, handmade baskets that a vendor sold.
   4. Handmade baskets, walking through the crowded market, caught Elena’s attention.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 correctly places the introductory modifier next to Elena, the person who is actually walking through the market. Choice 2 creates a dangling modifier because it grammatically suggests that the baskets were walking. Choice 3 is understandable but awkwardly interrupts the main clause and makes the relationship between the modifier and Elena less clear. Choice 4 incorrectly makes the baskets appear to be walking through the market. ACT English often tests introductory participial phrases. The noun immediately following such a phrase should logically perform the action described in the phrase. Reading the opening phrase and asking “Who is doing this?” is an effective way to identify the correct construction.

Question 322.

Which sentence uses parallel structure correctly?

1. The internship requires answering phones, to prepare reports, and scheduling appointments.
   2. The internship requires answering phones, preparing reports, and to schedule appointments.
   3. The internship requires to answer phones, preparing reports, and appointment scheduling.
   4. The internship requires answering phones, preparing reports, and scheduling appointments.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Choice 4 uses three matching gerund phrases: “answering phones,” “preparing reports,” and “scheduling appointments.” This creates parallel structure. Choices 1 and 2 mix gerunds with infinitives, producing an uneven list. Choice 3 mixes an infinitive, a gerund, and a noun phrase. ACT English frequently tests parallelism in lists, comparisons, and paired constructions. Items serving the same grammatical function should usually appear in the same grammatical form. When you encounter a list, compare the beginnings of each item. If one starts with “to,” another with an “-ing” form, and another with a noun, the sentence may need revision unless the differing forms serve genuinely different functions.

Question 323.

Choose the option that correctly uses apostrophes.
The two teachers classrooms were renovated during the summer.

1. teacher’s classrooms
   2. teachers classrooms
   3. teachers’ classrooms
   4. teacher classrooms’

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The sentence refers to classrooms belonging to two teachers. Because “teachers” is plural and already ends in s, the possessive form is created by adding an apostrophe after the final s: “teachers’ classrooms.” Choice 1 is singular possessive and would mean the classrooms belong to one teacher. Choice 2 lacks the apostrophe needed to show possession. Choice 4 incorrectly places the apostrophe on “classrooms.” ACT English commonly tests possessive nouns. First determine whether the owner is singular or plural. If a singular noun owns something, usually add apostrophe-s. If a plural noun already ends in s, generally add only an apostrophe after the s.

Question 324.

Choose the option that correctly joins the two independent clauses:
The storm ended shortly after midnight ___ the roads remained flooded until morning.

1. midnight, the
   2. midnight; the
   3. midnight the
   4. midnight: and the

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Both parts of the sentence are independent clauses: “The storm ended shortly after midnight” and “the roads remained flooded until morning.” A semicolon can correctly join two closely related independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction, so Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 creates a comma splice. Choice 3 produces a run-on sentence because there is no punctuation or conjunction between the clauses. Choice 4 is awkward because a colon does not appropriately express the relationship here, and adding “and” after it does not fix the structure. ACT English frequently tests sentence boundaries. When two complete sentences are joined, use a period, semicolon, or comma plus a coordinating conjunction.

Question 325.

A paragraph explains how a neighborhood transformed an empty lot into a public garden. Where would the following sentence fit best?
“Before any planting began, volunteers removed broken concrete and several loads of trash.”

1. Immediately after the paragraph introduces the abandoned lot and before it describes planting
   2. After the paragraph describes the first vegetable harvest
   3. At the end, after discussing annual community festivals
   4. Before the paragraph introduces the location of the lot

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The sentence describes preparation that logically occurred before planting, so it belongs after the lot is introduced but before the paragraph moves into planting activities. Choice 1 preserves chronological order and creates a smooth transition from the lot’s original condition to its transformation. Choices 2 and 3 place the cleanup after later events, disrupting the sequence. Choice 4 introduces cleanup before the reader even knows what site is being discussed. ACT English organization questions often depend on chronology, cause and effect, or the relationship between general statements and supporting details. Identify what event the proposed sentence describes and place it where the surrounding ideas make that event logically understandable.

Question 326.

The equations x+y=14 and x-y=4 form a system. What is the value of x?

1. 5
   2. 7
   3. 8
   4. 9

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Add the two equations together: (x+y)+(x-y)=14+4. The y terms cancel, leaving 2x=18. Divide by 2 to get x=9, so Choice 4 is correct. You can then find y if desired by substituting 9 into x+y=14, giving y=5. Checking the second equation confirms the result because 9-5=4. ACT Math system-of-equations questions can often be solved efficiently by elimination when one variable has opposite coefficients. Before using substitution, look for an opportunity to add or subtract the equations so one variable disappears immediately.

Question 327.

If f(x)=2x2-3, what is f(4)?

1. 13
   2. 21
   3. 29
   4. 35

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Substitute 4 for x in the function: f(4)=2(42)-3. First calculate 42=16. Then multiply by 2 to get 32 and subtract 3: 32-3=29. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. A common mistake is to multiply 4 by 2 before applying the exponent or to square the entire expression incorrectly. ACT function questions often test whether you understand notation rather than advanced mathematics. The expression f(4) simply means evaluate the formula when x equals 4. Substitute carefully and follow the standard order of operations.

Question 328.

A recipe uses 3 cups of flour for every 2 loaves of bread. At the same rate, how many cups of flour are needed for 10 loaves?

1. 12 cups
   2. 15 cups
   3. 18 cups
   4. 20 cups

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The ratio is 3 cups of flour for every 2 loaves. Ten loaves are five times as many as 2 loaves, so multiply the flour amount by 5: 35=15 cups. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. You can also solve with a proportion: 32=x10. Cross-multiplying gives 2x=30, so x=15. ACT ratio problems often become easier when you identify a simple scale factor before setting up an equation. Make sure the units stay in the same order when writing proportions so that cups correspond to cups and loaves correspond to loaves.

Question 329.

What is the midpoint of the line segment with endpoints (2,6) and (10,14)?

1. (6,10)
   2. (8,10)
   3. (6,8)
   4. (12,20)

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The midpoint is found by averaging the x-coordinates and averaging the y-coordinates. For x, (2+10)/2=12/2=6. For y, (6+14)/2=20/2=10. Therefore, the midpoint is (6,10), Choice 1. Choice 4 simply adds the coordinates without dividing by 2. Choices 2 and 3 average only one coordinate correctly. ACT coordinate-geometry questions often require formulas for slope, midpoint, or distance. For midpoint problems, think of finding the point exactly halfway between the endpoints in both the horizontal and vertical directions.

Question 330.

A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. If one marble is selected at random, what is the probability that it is blue?

1. 15
   2. 12
   3. 25
   4. 310

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

There are 5+3+2=10 marbles in total. Three of them are blue, so the probability of selecting a blue marble is 310. Therefore, Choice 4 is correct. Choice 1 corresponds to the two green marbles, while Choice 2 would mean half the marbles are blue, which is not true. Choice 3 represents four favorable outcomes rather than three. ACT probability questions generally use the relationship probability = favorable outcomes divided by total possible outcomes, assuming each outcome is equally likely. Count the full sample space carefully before forming the fraction.

Question 331.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
When Priya joined the school newspaper, she expected reporting to consist mostly of writing down what people said in interviews. Her editor assigned her a story about a proposed recreation center and asked her to review meeting records, budget documents, and neighborhood surveys. Priya discovered that several claims made during interviews did not fully match the written records. She revised her article to distinguish opinions from documented facts. Afterward, she began checking multiple sources before drafting every major story.

Which statement best describes Priya’s change in perspective?

1. She decides interviews should never be used in journalism.
   2. She concludes that official documents are always completely accurate.
   3. She realizes good reporting requires comparing information from multiple sources.
   4. She decides that local government stories are too complicated to cover.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Priya begins by assuming that reporting mainly involves recording interview statements. Her assignment teaches her that interviews may contain claims that need to be checked against other evidence. By reviewing documents and surveys, she learns to separate opinion from documented information. Her later habit of checking multiple sources confirms this change. Choice 3 accurately expresses the lesson she learns. Choice 1 is too extreme because interviews remain useful sources. Choice 2 is also absolute and unsupported. Choice 4 contradicts her continued reporting. ACT Reading character-development questions often ask how a person’s understanding becomes more nuanced through experience.

Question 332.

Why does the author mention that some interview claims did not fully match the written records?

1. To show that Priya should stop interviewing people
   2. To explain why she recognized the importance of verifying information
   3. To prove that the recreation center should not be built
   4. To suggest that the editor had made a serious mistake

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The mismatch between interview statements and written records provides the key experience that changes Priya’s approach to reporting. It demonstrates why a journalist should not rely on a single source of information without checking supporting evidence. Choice 2 therefore best explains the purpose of the detail. Choice 1 overstates the lesson because the passage does not reject interviews. Choice 3 shifts to the merits of the recreation center, which the passage does not evaluate. Choice 4 is unsupported because the editor’s assignment actually helps Priya improve. ACT Reading detail-purpose questions often ask how a specific example contributes to a larger realization or argument.

Question 333.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Urban planners sometimes redesign wide intersections by adding pedestrian islands. These raised areas give walkers a protected place to pause if they cannot cross the entire road during one signal cycle. Islands may also encourage drivers to make turns more slowly by narrowing the path available to vehicles. However, designers must consider buses, emergency vehicles, drainage, and accessibility when deciding where and how to install them.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Pedestrian islands can improve crossing conditions but must be designed around other transportation needs.
   2. Every large intersection should eliminate vehicle traffic.
   3. Pedestrian islands make traffic signals unnecessary.
   4. Buses cannot travel through intersections containing pedestrian islands.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage presents potential benefits of pedestrian islands, including providing a protected waiting area and encouraging slower turns. It also identifies practical considerations such as buses, emergency vehicles, drainage, and accessibility. Choice 1 captures both the benefit and the need for careful design. Choice 2 is far broader than anything the passage recommends. Choice 3 is unsupported because pedestrian islands work alongside traffic signals rather than replacing them. Choice 4 exaggerates the mention of buses as a design consideration. ACT main-idea questions often include extreme choices that convert a limited strategy into a universal rule. The best answer reflects the balance of the entire passage.

Question 334.

In the passage from Question 333, why does the author mention buses and emergency vehicles?

1. To prove that pedestrian islands are unsafe
   2. To argue that large vehicles should be banned from cities
   3. To show that drainage is the only important design issue
   4. To illustrate that intersection changes must still accommodate different road users

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Buses and emergency vehicles are mentioned as examples of road users whose space and movement requirements must be considered when redesigning an intersection. This supports the passage’s broader point that pedestrian improvements must be integrated with other transportation needs. Choice 4 is therefore correct. Choice 1 is too strong because the author presents pedestrian islands as potentially beneficial. Choice 2 is not suggested anywhere in the passage. Choice 3 incorrectly reduces several design concerns to only drainage. ACT Reading often asks why an author includes a specific example. The correct answer should explain how the example supports the overall reasoning rather than simply repeating the detail.

Question 335.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 333?

1. Pedestrian islands work only on roads with no buses.
   2. All intersections can use exactly the same pedestrian-island design.
   3. The design of a pedestrian island may need to vary from one intersection to another.
   4. Pedestrian islands always eliminate pedestrian accidents.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The passage lists several factors that designers must consider, including vehicle types, drainage, and accessibility. Because those conditions can differ from one intersection to another, it is reasonable to infer that the design may also need to vary. Choice 3 is therefore well supported. Choice 1 is contradicted by the idea that buses should be accommodated rather than excluded. Choice 2 ignores site-specific conditions. Choice 4 makes an absolute safety claim that the passage never makes. ACT inference questions reward conclusions that are supported but cautious. Avoid choices containing words such as “always,” “all,” or “only” unless the passage provides equally absolute evidence.

Question 336.

A lake’s algae concentration increased from 40 units to 50 units over one month. What was the percent increase?

1. 10%
   2. 25%
   3. 40%
   4. 50%

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The concentration increased by 50-40=10 units. Percent increase is calculated by dividing the change by the original value: 10/40=0.25. Converting to a percentage gives 25%, so Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 uses the numerical change as though it were already a percentage. Choice 3 uses the original value incorrectly, and Choice 4 confuses the new concentration with the percent increase. ACT Science sometimes includes basic calculations within data interpretation. Always identify the original value before calculating percent change because the denominator should be the starting amount, not the ending amount.

Question 337.

A researcher tests whether a new type of insulation slows heat loss. Identical containers of hot water are used. One container is wrapped in the insulation, while another is left unwrapped. Why is the unwrapped container included?

1. It provides a control for comparison with the insulated container.
   2. It increases the amount of heat produced by the experiment.
   3. It ensures both containers cool at exactly the same rate.
   4. It changes the independent variable in both groups.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The unwrapped container serves as a control group. It shows how quickly the hot water cools without the new insulation, giving the researcher a baseline for comparison. If the insulated container loses heat more slowly, the difference can then be evaluated relative to the control. Choice 2 misunderstands the purpose of the container because it does not generate extra heat. Choice 3 is incorrect because the experiment is specifically testing whether cooling rates differ. Choice 4 is also incorrect because the independent variable is the presence or absence of insulation. ACT Science often tests the purpose of control groups: they provide a reference condition against which the experimental treatment can be compared.

Question 338.

An experiment measured reaction time at four temperatures:
10°C: 42 seconds
20°C: 31 seconds
30°C: 22 seconds
40°C: 24 seconds
Which statement best describes the results?

1. Reaction time increased steadily as temperature increased.
   2. Reaction time was identical at 30°C and 40°C.
   3. The longest reaction time occurred at 40°C.
   4. Reaction time decreased through 30°C, then increased slightly at 40°C.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The reaction time falls from 42 seconds at 10°C to 31 seconds at 20°C and 22 seconds at 30°C. It then rises slightly to 24 seconds at 40°C. Choice 4 accurately describes the complete trend. Choice 1 reverses the main pattern. Choice 2 is incorrect because 22 and 24 seconds are different. Choice 3 is false because the longest time occurs at 10°C. ACT Science data questions often include relationships that change direction, so do not assume the trend remains linear across the full range. Examine each data point before selecting the description.

Question 339.

Scientist A argues that a decline in an insect population is caused mainly by loss of flowering plants. Scientist B argues that rising nighttime temperatures are the primary cause. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist B?

1. Flower abundance declines in several regions.
   2. The insects feed on nectar during the day.
   3. Insect numbers fall most where nighttime temperatures rise sharply while flower abundance remains stable.
   4. Some insect species are active during spring.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Scientist B proposes that rising nighttime temperatures are the primary cause of the population decline. Choice 3 directly supports this explanation because insect numbers decrease where nighttime temperatures rise while flower abundance remains relatively unchanged. This strengthens the temperature hypothesis and reduces habitat or food loss as a competing explanation. Choice 1 would provide more support for Scientist A. Choices 2 and 4 give background information but do not test either proposed cause. ACT conflicting-viewpoints questions are easiest when you identify the key variable emphasized by each scientist and then choose evidence that directly supports one while holding the competing factor relatively stable.

Question 340.

Researchers want to determine whether fertilizer A or fertilizer B produces greater plant growth. Which experimental design would provide the strongest comparison?

1. Give fertilizer A to plants outdoors and fertilizer B to plants indoors.
   2. Use similar plants under the same conditions, changing only whether they receive fertilizer A or fertilizer B.
   3. Give fertilizer A to young plants and fertilizer B to mature plants.
   4. Give different amounts of water and different fertilizers to each group.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 provides the strongest design because the groups are kept similar in all major conditions except the fertilizer being tested. This isolates fertilizer type as the main independent variable, making differences in growth easier to interpret. Choice 1 changes both fertilizer and environment. Choice 3 changes fertilizer and plant age. Choice 4 introduces differences in both fertilizer and water amount. Each of those designs creates confounding variables. ACT Science frequently tests experimental validity. A fair comparison changes one major factor at a time while controlling other relevant conditions such as plant type, age, water, light, temperature, and duration.