View Full Test Prep ACT Test Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 361.

Choose the option that best corrects the underlined portion of the sentence:
After reviewing the final proposal, the cost of the renovation seemed too high to Maya.

1. Maya thought the cost of the renovation was too high.
   2. the renovation’s cost seemed too high to Maya.
   3. the cost was considered too high by Maya.
   4. Maya, the renovation cost seemed too high.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The introductory phrase “After reviewing the final proposal” logically describes Maya, the person who performed the reviewing. Choice 1 correctly places Maya immediately after that introductory phrase, so the modifier clearly refers to her. In the original version, the sentence grammatically suggests that “the cost” reviewed the proposal, which creates a dangling modifier. Choice 2 still places an inanimate noun after the introductory phrase. Choice 3 creates the same logical problem and adds unnecessary passive wording. Choice 4 is grammatically awkward because it combines two sentence structures incorrectly. ACT English frequently tests modifier placement. After an introductory participial phrase, the noun that actually performs the stated action should usually appear immediately afterward.

Question 362.

Which sentence uses verb tense most effectively?

1. Last Saturday, Nina walks to the market and bought fresh vegetables.
   2. Last Saturday, Nina had walked to the market and buys fresh vegetables.
   3. Last Saturday, Nina walking to the market bought fresh vegetables.
   4. Last Saturday, Nina walked to the market and bought fresh vegetables.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The phrase “Last Saturday” establishes a completed action in the past, so both main verbs should use the simple past tense. Choice 4 correctly uses “walked” and “bought,” creating consistent verb tense. Choice 1 incorrectly combines present tense “walks” with past tense “bought.” Choice 2 mixes past perfect and present tense without any reason for doing so. Choice 3 creates an awkward participial construction that changes the sentence’s intended structure. ACT English often tests tense consistency by giving a clear time marker such as “last year,” “yesterday,” or “next month.” Identify the time frame first, then make sure the verbs describing related actions remain logically consistent within that time frame.

Question 363.

Choose the sentence with correct pronoun agreement.

1. Every student should place their completed form in the box before leaving.
   2. Every student should place our completed form in the box before leaving.
   3. All students should place their completed forms in the box before leaving.
   4. All students should place his completed forms in the box before leaving.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Choice 3 creates clear agreement between the plural antecedent “students” and the plural possessive pronoun “their.” It also correctly uses the plural noun “forms” because each student has a form. Choice 1 may be common in modern usage, but on a traditional agreement question the plural rewrite in Choice 3 removes any potential number mismatch cleanly. Choice 2 incorrectly shifts to “our,” which changes the point of view. Choice 4 pairs the plural antecedent “students” with the singular pronoun “his.” ACT English questions about pronouns focus on clarity, number, and consistent point of view. When a sentence becomes awkward with a singular antecedent, rewriting the antecedent in the plural often creates the clearest solution.

Question 364.

Which option correctly joins the two sentences?
The theater sold every ticket for Friday’s performance. The company added another performance on Saturday.

1. The theater sold every ticket for Friday’s performance, the company added another performance on Saturday.
   2. The theater sold every ticket for Friday’s performance, so the company added another performance on Saturday.
   3. The theater sold every ticket for Friday’s performance the company added another performance on Saturday.
   4. The theater sold every ticket for Friday’s performance; so, the company added another performance on Saturday.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 correctly joins two independent clauses with a comma and the coordinating conjunction “so.” It also expresses the logical cause-and-effect relationship: because Friday sold out, the company scheduled another performance. Choice 1 creates a comma splice because two complete sentences are joined with only a comma. Choice 3 creates a run-on sentence because there is no punctuation or conjunction between the independent clauses. Choice 4 incorrectly combines a semicolon with the coordinating conjunction “so” in this structure. ACT English frequently tests sentence boundaries. Two independent clauses can be joined with a period, a semicolon, or a comma followed by an appropriate coordinating conjunction such as “and,” “but,” or “so.”

Question 365.

A writer wants to add a sentence emphasizing the environmental benefit of replacing a school lawn with native plants. Which sentence would best accomplish that goal?

1. Native plants generally require less irrigation and can provide habitat for local pollinators.
   2. Students can see the planting area from several classroom windows.
   3. The old lawn was installed when the school building opened.
   4. Volunteers worked on the planting project during a Saturday morning.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 directly addresses environmental benefits by identifying two advantages: reduced water use and improved habitat for pollinators. These details clearly support the writer’s stated goal. Choice 2 discusses visibility from classrooms, which may be relevant to education but does not directly demonstrate environmental value. Choice 3 gives historical background, and Choice 4 describes when the work occurred. ACT rhetorical-purpose questions require selecting the information that most directly supports a particular writing objective. When the goal involves environmental benefit, look for evidence involving resource conservation, habitat, pollution reduction, biodiversity, or similar outcomes. The strongest answer should do more than relate to the topic; it should specifically advance the stated purpose.

Question 366.

Solve the system of equations:
2x+y=17
x-y=1
What is the value of x?

1. 4
   2. 5
   3. 7
   4. 6

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Add the two equations together: (2x+y)+(x-y)=17+1. The y terms cancel, leaving 3x=18. Divide both sides by 3 to get x=6. Therefore, Choice 4 is correct. You can verify the result by substituting 6 into the second equation: 6-y=1, so y=5. Checking the first equation gives 2(6)+5=17, confirming the solution. ACT Math system-of-equations questions often become easier when the coefficients of one variable are opposites, as they are here for y. Before using substitution, inspect the equations to see whether addition or subtraction can eliminate a variable immediately.

Question 367.

If h(x)=x2+4x-1, what is h(3)?

1. 14
   2. 18
   3. 20
   4. 24

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Substitute 3 for every x in the function: h(3)=32+4(3)-1. First evaluate the exponent: 32=9. Then calculate 4(3)=12. Add and subtract in order: 9+12-1=20. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. Choice 1 may result from forgetting the squared term, while Choice 18 and Choice 24 reflect other arithmetic errors. ACT function questions usually test substitution and order of operations rather than advanced function concepts. Replace the variable carefully with the given value, use parentheses when helpful, evaluate exponents before multiplication, and then complete the remaining addition and subtraction.

Question 368.

A map uses a scale of 1 inch = 12 miles. Two towns are 3.5 inches apart on the map. What is their actual distance?

1. 24 miles
   2. 42 miles
   3. 36 miles
   4. 48 miles

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Each inch on the map represents 12 actual miles. The towns are 3.5 inches apart, so multiply 3.512. Since 312=36 and 0.512=6, the total is 36+6=42 miles. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. ACT ratio and scale problems often involve converting a measurement from a diagram or map into a real-world quantity. Keep the units organized and determine whether you need to multiply or divide. Since each map inch represents many actual miles, converting from map distance to actual distance requires multiplication by the scale factor.

Question 369.

A right triangle has legs measuring 9 units and 12 units. What is the length of the hypotenuse?

1. 15 units
   2. 18 units
   3. 21 units
   4. 24 units

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Use the Pythagorean theorem: a2+b2=c2. Substitute the leg lengths: 92+122=c2. This gives 81+144=225, so c2=225. Taking the positive square root gives c=15. Therefore, Choice 1 is correct. The 9-12-15 triangle is also a multiple of the common 3-4-5 right triangle. Recognizing familiar Pythagorean triples can save time on the ACT, but applying the theorem directly is always reliable. Remember that the hypotenuse lies opposite the right angle and must be longer than either leg, which also helps eliminate unreasonable answers.

Question 370.

The probability of rain on Saturday is 25. What is the probability that it will not rain on Saturday?

1. 15
   2. 25
   3. 45
   4. 35

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The probability of an event and its complement must add to 1. If the probability of rain is 25, then the probability of no rain is 1-25=35. Therefore, Choice 4 is correct. Choice 2 simply repeats the probability of rain. Choice 1 is too small, and Choice 3 would make the total probability exceed 1 when combined with 25. ACT probability questions often test complementary events. When a question asks for the probability that something does not happen, it can often be faster to subtract the probability that it does happen from 1.

Question 371.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Luis used to think that learning another language meant memorizing long lists of vocabulary. During an exchange program, however, he discovered that knowing individual words did not always help him understand jokes, informal expressions, or the rhythm of ordinary conversation. He began listening closely to how people used familiar words in different situations and started keeping notes on entire phrases rather than isolated terms. By the end of the program, he was less concerned with memorizing every new word and more interested in understanding meaning from context.

Which statement best describes Luis’s change in perspective?

1. He realizes that language learning involves context and usage as well as vocabulary.
   2. He decides vocabulary is completely unnecessary.
   3. He concludes that informal conversation cannot be learned.
   4. He stops trying to learn unfamiliar expressions.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Luis begins with the belief that language learning is mainly a matter of memorizing individual words. His experience during the exchange program shows him that communication also depends on context, phrases, informal usage, and conversational patterns. Choice 1 accurately summarizes this broader understanding. Choice 2 is too extreme because Luis does not abandon vocabulary; he changes how he uses and learns it. Choice 3 contradicts his progress with informal speech. Choice 4 is also incorrect because he becomes more attentive to expressions. ACT Reading questions about changes in perspective often ask you to compare the character’s initial assumption with the more nuanced understanding developed through experience.

Question 372.

Why does the author mention jokes and informal expressions in the passage from Question 371?

1. To show that Luis disliked speaking with other people
   2. To prove that vocabulary lists contain incorrect words
   3. To argue that formal language should never be studied
   4. To illustrate situations in which knowing individual words was not enough for full understanding

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The references to jokes and informal expressions demonstrate the limitations of Luis’s original approach. Even when he recognizes individual words, he may miss the intended meaning because everyday communication depends on context, tone, and combinations of words. Choice 4 therefore best explains the purpose of those examples. Choice 1 is unsupported because Luis actively participates in the exchange experience. Choice 2 makes a claim about vocabulary lists that the passage does not make. Choice 3 is too extreme and unrelated to the author’s main point. ACT Reading questions about specific examples often ask how those examples help illustrate a larger lesson or change in perspective.

Question 373.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Many cities are experimenting with reflective roofing materials on large public buildings. Traditional dark roofs can absorb substantial solar energy and become extremely warm on sunny days. Reflective surfaces send more incoming sunlight back into the atmosphere, which can reduce roof temperatures and sometimes lower cooling demand inside the building. The benefits vary, however, depending on climate, building design, insulation, and seasonal conditions.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Reflective roofs should be required on every building.
   2. Dark roofs are responsible for all urban temperature increases.
   3. Reflective roofing can reduce heat absorption, but its effectiveness depends on several conditions.
   4. Reflective roofing eliminates the need for building insulation.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The passage explains that reflective roofs can send more sunlight away from a building, reducing surface temperatures and potentially lowering cooling demand. It also makes clear that the effectiveness of this approach varies according to climate, building design, insulation, and season. Choice 3 accurately captures both the potential benefit and the qualification. Choice 1 is too broad because the passage does not recommend reflective roofing for every building. Choice 2 incorrectly identifies dark roofs as the sole cause of urban heat. Choice 4 exaggerates the technology’s impact because insulation is still mentioned as an important factor. ACT main-idea questions often reward balanced answers that include both benefits and limitations.

Question 374.

Why does the author mention climate, insulation, and seasonal conditions in the passage from Question 373?

1. To prove that reflective roofs are never useful
   2. To identify factors that can influence how effective reflective roofing is
   3. To argue that buildings should not have roofs in warm climates
   4. To show that insulation causes roofs to absorb sunlight

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The author includes climate, insulation, and seasonal conditions to qualify the discussion of reflective roofs. These factors can influence how much benefit a particular building receives from a reflective surface. Choice 2 therefore correctly identifies the purpose of the details. Choice 1 contradicts the passage’s description of possible benefits. Choice 3 is unreasonable and unsupported. Choice 4 incorrectly describes the relationship between insulation and solar absorption. ACT Reading questions frequently test why authors include qualifying information after presenting an advantage. Such details show that the effectiveness of a strategy can depend on context and prevent readers from interpreting the claim as universal.

Question 375.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 373?

1. A city should evaluate individual buildings before deciding where reflective roofs are most useful.
   2. Reflective roofs always produce the same energy savings.
   3. Dark roofs cannot be used safely in any climate.
   4. Reflective roofs work only during winter.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Because the passage states that benefits vary with climate, design, insulation, and seasonal conditions, it is reasonable to infer that reflective roofs should be evaluated on a building-by-building basis rather than assumed to perform identically everywhere. Choice 1 is therefore well supported. Choice 2 directly contradicts the statement that benefits vary. Choice 3 makes an unsupported absolute claim, and Choice 4 reverses the likely usefulness of reflective surfaces during sunny conditions. ACT inference questions reward conclusions that extend the author’s reasoning only slightly. Avoid choices that use absolute words such as “always,” “cannot,” or “only” unless the passage provides equally strong evidence.

Question 376.

A pond’s nitrate concentration increased from 16 mg/L to 20 mg/L. What was the percent increase?

1. 20%
   2. 25%
   3. 4%
   4. 80%

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The nitrate concentration increased by 20-16=4 mg/L. To find percent increase, divide the change by the original value: 4/16=0.25. Converting 0.25 to a percentage gives 25%, so Choice 2 is correct. Choice 3 uses the raw numerical change as though it were a percentage. Choice 1 incorrectly compares the increase with the ending value, and Choice 4 results from reversing the ratio. ACT Science often includes basic percentage calculations when interpreting data. Always identify the original measurement first because percent change is based on the starting value, not the final value.

Question 377.

A scientist tests whether a new filter removes particles from water. Identical water samples are used. One sample is passed through the filter, and one is left untreated. Why is the untreated sample important?

1. It provides a baseline for comparison with the filtered sample.
   2. It ensures that the filter removes every particle.
   3. It increases the number of independent variables.
   4. It guarantees identical particle levels after treatment.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The untreated sample serves as a control. It shows the particle concentration when no filtering treatment is applied, giving the scientist a baseline for evaluating the filtered sample. If the filtered sample contains fewer particles, the difference can be compared with the untreated condition. Choice 2 is incorrect because a control does not guarantee complete removal. Choice 3 would weaken the experiment rather than improve it. Choice 4 is the opposite of the purpose of the experiment because the scientist is testing whether the particle levels become different. ACT Science commonly asks why a control group is needed: it provides a reference condition against which the experimental treatment can be evaluated.

Question 378.

An experiment measured bacterial growth at four temperatures:
10°C: 12 units
20°C: 26 units
30°C: 41 units
40°C: 30 units
Which statement best describes the results?

1. Bacterial growth decreased continuously as temperature increased.
   2. Bacterial growth was greatest at 10°C.
   3. Bacterial growth increased through 30°C and then decreased at 40°C.
   4. Temperature had no relationship with bacterial growth.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The measurements rise from 12 units at 10°C to 26 units at 20°C and 41 units at 30°C. At 40°C, growth falls to 30 units. Choice 3 therefore accurately describes the complete pattern. Choice 1 reverses the initial trend, while Choice 2 is incorrect because the highest growth occurs at 30°C. Choice 4 ignores the clear differences among the temperature treatments. ACT Science data questions often present a relationship that increases to an optimum and then declines. Read each data point rather than assuming a simple continuous increase or decrease. The correct answer should describe what the measurements actually show without introducing an unsupported explanation.

Question 379.

Scientist A argues that a decrease in a lake’s fish population is mainly caused by low oxygen levels. Scientist B argues that increased water temperature is the primary cause. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist A?

1. Fish populations decline most where dissolved oxygen falls sharply while water temperature remains relatively stable.
   2. Water temperature rises in several shallow areas.
   3. Some fish feed near the lake bottom.
   4. The lake contains several species of aquatic plants.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Scientist A proposes that low oxygen is the main cause of the fish decline. Choice 1 directly supports that hypothesis because fish numbers fall where oxygen decreases while temperature remains stable. This makes reduced oxygen a stronger explanation and minimizes the competing temperature hypothesis. Choice 2 would instead provide support for Scientist B. Choices 3 and 4 provide background information but do not directly test either scientist’s proposed cause. ACT conflicting-viewpoints questions are easiest when you identify the central variable in each explanation and choose evidence that supports one variable while keeping the competing factor relatively unchanged.

Question 380.

Researchers want to determine whether music affects reading-comprehension scores. Which experimental design would provide the strongest evidence?

1. Let one group read an easy passage with music and another read a difficult passage without music.
   2. Use similar participants and identical reading materials, changing only whether music is played.
   3. Give the music group twice as much reading time.
   4. Test the music group in the morning and the other group late at night.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 provides the strongest comparison because the participants and reading materials are kept similar while only the presence of music changes. This isolates music as the independent variable and makes differences in comprehension scores easier to interpret. Choice 1 changes both music and passage difficulty. Choice 3 changes music and reading time. Choice 4 changes music and testing time, which could introduce fatigue or other effects. ACT Science experimental-design questions frequently test whether a study isolates the factor it claims to investigate. The strongest design controls other relevant variables so that alternative explanations for any observed difference are minimized.