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Question 161.

Which security concept requires users to receive only the permissions necessary for their current responsibilities?

1. Least privilege
   2. Open access
   3. Shared authentication
   4. Flat authorization

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Least privilege limits users, applications, and systems to only the access required for legitimate tasks. This reduces the damage that can result from stolen credentials, accidental changes, or malicious insiders. Open access and flat authorization provide unnecessarily broad permissions, while shared authentication can weaken accountability. Organizations commonly implement least privilege through role-based access, periodic access reviews, separate privileged accounts, and temporary privilege elevation. Removing permissions when they are no longer needed is also important because unnecessary access can accumulate as users change jobs or responsibilities.

Question 162.

Which firewall capability allows administrators to apply security policy according to the identity of the user generating traffic?

1. Static routing
   2. Port aggregation
   3. DNS caching
   4. User identification

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

User identification associates network activity with authenticated users or groups, allowing security policies to consider identity rather than relying only on IP addresses. This is useful because IP addresses can change or be shared among multiple users. Static routing determines packet paths, port aggregation combines interfaces, and DNS caching stores recently resolved name information. User-aware security policy can help distinguish access requirements for administrators, employees, contractors, and other groups while improving visibility during monitoring and investigations.

Question 163.

Which term describes malicious software that can spread automatically between vulnerable systems without requiring a user to copy it manually?

1. Adware
   2. Root certificate
   3. Worm
   4. Backup agent

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A worm is malware capable of self-propagating between systems or across networks, often by exploiting vulnerabilities or weak configurations. Because it can spread automatically, a worm may compromise many systems quickly if controls are insufficient. Adware primarily displays unwanted advertising. A root certificate is part of a trust infrastructure, while a backup agent supports data protection. Patching, segmentation, endpoint security, intrusion prevention, and monitoring can help reduce the risk and impact of worm outbreaks.

Question 164.

Which statement best describes a firewall traffic log?

1. It stores only employee payroll information.
   2. It records information about network sessions processed by the firewall.
   3. It automatically repairs vulnerable applications.
   4. It replaces endpoint security software.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Traffic logs record information about sessions handled by the firewall. Depending on configuration, entries can include source and destination addresses, users, applications, zones, ports, actions, matched rules, bytes transferred, and session duration. Administrators use traffic logs for troubleshooting, policy validation, monitoring, and incident investigation. They do not contain only payroll information, patch applications automatically, or replace endpoint protection. Accurate traffic logging provides useful evidence about how systems communicate across security boundaries.

Question 165.

Which action most directly improves the security of a publicly accessible management interface?

1. Restrict access to trusted management sources and require strong authentication.
   2. Allow access from every internet address.
   3. Disable administrative logging.
   4. Use one shared password for all administrators.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Restricting management access reduces the number of systems that can even attempt to reach an administrative interface. Strong authentication adds another layer of protection if an authorized source is compromised. Allowing unrestricted internet access creates unnecessary exposure, while shared credentials weaken accountability. Disabling logs removes evidence that could support troubleshooting or incident response. Management interfaces are high-value targets because successful compromise may allow attackers to change policies, create accounts, disable security features, or access sensitive configuration information.

Question 166.

Which protocol is commonly used for encrypted remote command-line management and normally uses TCP port 22?

1. FTP
   2. HTTP
   3. Telnet
   4. SSH

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

SSH provides encrypted command-line access and normally uses TCP port 22. It is widely used for secure administration of servers, firewalls, routers, and other systems. Telnet provides similar terminal functionality but generally transmits data without strong encryption. HTTP is primarily used for web communication, while FTP is associated with file transfer. SSH should still be protected through restricted management access, strong authentication, individual administrator accounts, and logging because encryption alone does not prevent unauthorized access.

Question 167.

Which security feature can inspect allowed traffic for known exploit attempts and block malicious activity?

1. DHCP reservation
   2. DNS forwarding
   3. Intrusion prevention
   4. Link aggregation

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Intrusion prevention examines network traffic for exploit patterns, suspicious behavior, and other indicators of attack. When malicious activity is detected, the security platform may block, reset, or otherwise prevent the connection according to policy. DHCP reservations assign predictable IP addresses, DNS forwarding handles name-resolution requests, and link aggregation combines interfaces. Intrusion prevention complements firewall rules by inspecting traffic that has already been permitted and checking whether the content itself is malicious.

Question 168.

Which statement best explains why network segmentation improves security?

1. It makes every internal service publicly accessible.
   2. It limits unnecessary communication between different parts of the environment.
   3. It removes the need for identity controls.
   4. It guarantees that malware can never enter the network.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Segmentation divides systems into separate network areas and controls communication between them. This reduces unnecessary access and can limit lateral movement after a compromise. For example, guest devices may be separated from internal servers, while administrative systems may have even stricter access controls. Segmentation does not guarantee that malware will never enter an environment and does not replace authentication or authorization. It is one layer of defense that works alongside firewalls, endpoint security, monitoring, and least privilege.

Question 169.

Which security objective is supported by encrypting confidential information stored on a laptop?

1. Confidentiality
   2. Availability
   3. Redundancy
   4. Scalability

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Encryption primarily supports confidentiality by preventing unauthorized parties from easily reading protected data. Full-disk encryption can reduce exposure if a laptop is lost or stolen because possession of the physical device does not automatically provide access to stored information. Availability concerns whether systems and data remain accessible when needed. Redundancy provides additional resources for resilience, while scalability relates to handling changing demand. Encryption should be paired with strong authentication and secure key management for effective protection.

Question 170.

Which attack attempts many possible passwords against one account until a valid password is found?

1. Network segmentation
   2. Data replication
   3. File compression
   4. Brute-force attack

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A brute-force attack repeatedly attempts password possibilities against an account until one succeeds. Security controls such as multi-factor authentication, rate limiting, appropriate lockout policies, strong passwords, and authentication monitoring can reduce the risk. Data replication creates additional copies of information, file compression reduces storage size, and segmentation separates networks. Analysts investigating brute-force activity should review source addresses, timestamps, affected accounts, successful logins, and related events to determine whether credentials were ultimately compromised.

Question 171.

Which endpoint-security capability allows analysts to investigate suspicious processes and potentially isolate a compromised device?

1. Static NAT
   2. VLAN tagging
   3. Endpoint detection and response
   4. DNS recursion

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Endpoint detection and response collects endpoint telemetry and helps analysts investigate processes, files, network connections, and other suspicious behavior. Many EDR platforms also support response actions such as terminating processes or isolating compromised devices. Static NAT translates addresses, VLAN tagging identifies Layer 2 network membership, and DNS recursion performs name-resolution functions. EDR is valuable because some attacks happen directly on endpoints after malware executes or credentials are abused and may not be fully visible through network controls alone.

Question 172.

Which statement best describes a security zone on a firewall?

1. It permanently assigns passwords to administrators.
   2. It groups interfaces or networks that have similar security requirements.
   3. It automatically creates backups.
   4. It replaces IP addressing.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A security zone groups interfaces or network segments with similar trust levels or security requirements. Firewall policies can then control traffic between those zones. Examples might include user, server, guest, external, and management zones. Zones simplify policy design because rules can be written around logical security boundaries rather than only individual interfaces. Security zones do not replace IP addressing, manage administrator passwords, or automatically back up systems. Their value comes from supporting segmentation and clear policy enforcement.

Question 173.

Which practice best protects an organization’s administrative accounts from unnecessary exposure?

1. Use separate privileged accounts for administrative tasks.
   2. Use administrator accounts for ordinary email and web browsing.
   3. Share one administrator password across the entire IT department.
   4. Disable multi-factor authentication for administrators.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Separate privileged accounts reduce exposure by keeping powerful credentials away from routine activities such as email and general web browsing. Administrators can use standard accounts for everyday work and elevate privileges only when needed. Shared credentials weaken accountability and make password changes more difficult. Disabling multi-factor authentication reduces protection for high-value accounts. Privileged accounts should also be monitored closely, restricted to appropriate systems, and reviewed periodically to confirm that elevated permissions remain necessary.

Question 174.

Which feature is most appropriate for blocking access to known phishing or malicious websites?

1. Static routing
   2. Link aggregation
   3. DHCP relay
   4. URL filtering

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

URL filtering can identify and control access to web destinations according to categories, reputation, and security policy. Known phishing, malware-hosting, or otherwise dangerous websites can be blocked before users interact with them. Static routing determines traffic paths, link aggregation combines interfaces, and DHCP relay forwards address-assignment messages. URL filtering is most effective when combined with DNS security, threat prevention, endpoint protection, user awareness, and multi-factor authentication because web threats may use several techniques to compromise users.

Question 175.

Which incident-response phase focuses on removing malware, unauthorized accounts, or other causes of compromise after containment?

1. Preparation
   2. Recovery
   3. Eradication
   4. Detection

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Eradication focuses on removing the root causes and artifacts of compromise after the incident has been contained. Activities may include deleting malware, closing compromised accounts, removing persistence mechanisms, applying patches, and correcting insecure configurations. Preparation happens before incidents occur, detection identifies suspicious activity, and recovery returns clean systems to normal operation. Eradication should be performed carefully so the active threat is actually removed before affected systems are restored to production.

Question 176.

Which statement best describes the purpose of DNS security monitoring?

1. It physically repairs damaged network cables.
   2. It can help identify or block connections to suspicious or malicious domains.
   3. It replaces every firewall rule.
   4. It increases disk storage capacity.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

DNS security monitoring can detect suspicious domain lookups and help block access to known malicious destinations. Malware frequently uses domain names to reach command-and-control infrastructure, download payloads, or redirect users to phishing sites. Monitoring DNS provides useful visibility because name resolution often occurs before a connection is established. DNS security does not replace firewall policy or endpoint controls, but it adds another layer that can disrupt attacks early in the communication process.

Question 177.

Which control most directly limits the damage that could result if a standard employee account is compromised?

1. Least privilege
   2. Shared administrator access
   3. Anonymous login
   4. Flat network access

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Least privilege limits the resources and actions available to a compromised account. If an employee can access only the systems required for their job, an attacker using that identity has fewer opportunities to reach sensitive data or administrative functions. Shared administrator access, anonymous login, and flat access create broader exposure. Organizations should combine least privilege with strong authentication, segmentation, monitoring, and periodic access reviews so unnecessary permissions do not accumulate over time.

Question 178.

Which event is most likely to indicate possible command-and-control activity from a compromised endpoint?

1. A scheduled backup completes successfully.
   2. An employee prints an approved document.
   3. An administrator performs a planned configuration change.
   4. An endpoint repeatedly connects to a known malicious external domain.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Repeated connections to a known malicious domain can indicate that malware is communicating with attacker-controlled infrastructure. Security analysts should investigate the endpoint, associated processes, user activity, DNS queries, and network sessions to determine the scope of compromise. Backups, printing, and approved administrative changes are generally expected events. If malicious communication is confirmed, containment may include isolating the endpoint and blocking the malicious destination while preserving evidence for further analysis.

Question 179.

Which cloud-security concept explains that a customer may remain responsible for securing identities, data, and configurations even when infrastructure is hosted by a provider?

1. Public routing
   2. Open authorization
   3. Shared responsibility model
   4. Anonymous trust

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The shared responsibility model divides security obligations between the cloud provider and the customer. Exact responsibilities vary according to whether the service is IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, or another model. Providers may protect facilities and foundational infrastructure, while customers may still be responsible for identities, data, application settings, access controls, and other configurations. Understanding this division prevents organizations from assuming that moving to the cloud automatically transfers every security responsibility to the provider.

Question 180.

Which approach provides the strongest overall defense against modern cyberattacks?

1. Depend entirely on a single perimeter firewall.
   2. Use layered controls across identities, endpoints, networks, applications, cloud environments, monitoring, and recovery.
   3. Disable security updates to avoid change.
   4. Trust every internal user and device automatically.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Layered security provides multiple opportunities to prevent, detect, contain, and recover from attacks. Identity controls protect accounts, endpoint security monitors hosts, segmentation limits lateral movement, firewalls enforce network policy, threat prevention blocks malicious traffic, and monitoring supports investigation. Cloud security and backup capabilities address additional risks. Relying on a single perimeter control leaves gaps, while disabling updates or automatically trusting internal activity increases exposure. Defense in depth recognizes that no individual technology can stop every threat, so complementary controls should work together.