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Question 61

Which subnet mask provides 30 usable IPv4 host addresses per subnet?

1. 255.255.255.224
2. 255.255.255.240
3. 255.255.255.248
4. 255.255.255.192

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The subnet mask 255.255.255.224 is a /27 prefix. A /27 network contains 32 total IPv4 addresses, including one network address and one broadcast address. Therefore, 30 addresses remain available for hosts. A /28 provides only 14 usable addresses, while a /29 provides 6. A /26 provides 62 usable addresses. Subnetting allows network administrators to divide larger address spaces into smaller networks based on host requirements. Therefore, 255.255.255.224 is the appropriate mask when exactly 30 usable host addresses are required.

Question 62

Which protocol is commonly used to securely authenticate users against a centralized AAA server?

1. FTP
2. TFTP
3. HTTP
4. TACACS+

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

TACACS+ is a Cisco-supported AAA protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network device access. It encrypts the entire contents of the authentication exchange, providing stronger protection for administrative credentials. TACACS+ also separates authentication and authorization processes, allowing administrators to control which commands users can execute. FTP and TFTP are file transfer protocols, while HTTP is an application-layer protocol used for web communication. Therefore, TACACS+ is the best choice for centralized and secure administrative access to network devices.

Question 63

What is the primary purpose of an IPv4 default gateway on a host?

1. To assign the host an IP address
2. To forward traffic destined for remote networks
3. To resolve domain names
4. To provide MAC addresses automatically

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A default gateway is the router interface that a host uses when the destination IP address belongs to a different network. The host compares the destination address with its own subnet and determines whether the destination is local or remote. If the destination is remote, the host forwards the packet to its configured default gateway. DHCP can assign the gateway address, but DHCP itself does not perform the forwarding. DNS resolves names, while ARP helps discover MAC addresses. Therefore, the default gateway provides access to remote networks.

Question 64

Which IPv6 mechanism allows a host to automatically configure an address using information received from a router?

1. NAT
2. DHCPv4
3. SLAAC
4. PAT

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

SLAAC, or Stateless Address Autoconfiguration, allows IPv6 hosts to automatically generate their own addresses using information provided by IPv6 routers. Routers send Router Advertisement messages containing network prefix information that hosts can use to create a global unicast address. SLAAC reduces the need for manually configuring IPv6 addresses on individual devices. DHCPv4 is designed for IPv4 addressing, while NAT and PAT are translation mechanisms rather than IPv6 host configuration methods. Therefore, SLAAC is the correct mechanism for automatic IPv6 address configuration.

Question 65

Which command displays the VLANs configured on a Cisco switch and shows the ports assigned to each VLAN?

1. show vlan brief
2. show ip route
3. show interfaces trunk
4. show cdp neighbors

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The show vlan brief command provides a concise summary of VLAN information on a Cisco switch. It displays the VLAN ID, VLAN name, status, and access ports associated with each VLAN. This command is particularly useful when verifying whether switch ports have been assigned to the correct VLAN. The show interfaces trunk command focuses specifically on trunk interfaces and allowed VLANs. show ip route displays routing information, while show cdp neighbors identifies directly connected Cisco devices. Therefore, show vlan brief is the appropriate command for this task.

Question 66

Which protocol is used to negotiate EtherChannel links between Cisco switches?

1. STP
2. LLDP
3. LACP
4. ARP

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

LACP, or Link Aggregation Control Protocol, is an industry-standard protocol used to dynamically negotiate and form EtherChannel bundles. It allows multiple physical Ethernet links to operate together as a single logical connection, increasing available bandwidth and providing redundancy. LACP is defined by IEEE 802.1AX. STP prevents switching loops, LLDP provides neighbor discovery, and ARP maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses. Cisco switches can also support PAgP for EtherChannel negotiation, but LACP is the standards-based protocol commonly used for this purpose.

Question 67

Which STP port role provides the best path from a non-root switch toward the root bridge?

1. Designated port
2. Root port
3. Disabled port
4. Alternate trunk

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The root port is the port on a non-root switch that provides the best path toward the STP root bridge. Each non-root switch normally selects one root port based on the lowest path cost to the root. If multiple paths have equal costs, additional bridge and port identifiers are considered during the selection process. A designated port provides the best path away from a segment toward the root and forwards traffic for that segment. Therefore, the root port is specifically responsible for providing the preferred path from a non-root switch toward the root bridge.

Question 68

Which type of ACL is identified by numbers ranging from 1 through 99 in traditional Cisco IOS configuration?

1. Extended ACL
2. Dynamic ACL
3. IPv6 ACL
4. Standard ACL

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

Traditional Cisco IOS numbered standard IPv4 access control lists commonly use numbers from 1 through 99, with additional ranges available in some IOS versions. Standard ACLs primarily filter traffic based on the source IPv4 address. They do not provide the detailed control available with extended ACLs, which can evaluate source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports. ACLs are processed according to their entries and can be applied inbound or outbound on interfaces. Therefore, an ACL using the traditional 1–99 range represents a standard IPv4 ACL.

Question 69

What is the main purpose of a trunk port between switches?

1. To carry traffic for multiple VLANs
2. To connect only end-user devices
3. To provide DHCP services
4. To replace a router

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A trunk port is designed to carry traffic belonging to multiple VLANs across a single physical link. IEEE 802.1Q tagging identifies the VLAN associated with frames traveling across the trunk. Trunks are commonly used between switches and between switches and devices such as routers or multilayer switches. An access port normally carries traffic for one VLAN and is typically connected to an end device. A trunk does not provide DHCP services and does not replace routing between VLANs. Therefore, carrying multiple VLANs is the primary purpose of a trunk port.

Question 70

Which Cisco command configures a switch interface as an access port?

1. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
2. switchport mode access
3. switchport nonegotiate trunk
4. switchport access vlan trunk

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The switchport mode access command statically configures a switch interface to operate as an access port. An access port is normally assigned to a single VLAN and is commonly connected to end devices such as computers, printers, and IP phones. After configuring the port as an access port, the administrator can use switchport access vlan to assign it to a specific VLAN. Trunk-related commands are used when an interface must carry multiple VLANs. Therefore, switchport mode access is the correct command for configuring an access port.

Question 71

Which OSPF feature allows routers in a multiaccess network to reduce the number of required adjacencies?

1. Route summarization
2. Default routing
3. DR and BDR election
4. Administrative distance

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

OSPF uses a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR) on broadcast multiaccess networks to reduce the number of full neighbor adjacencies required. Instead of every router forming a full adjacency with every other router, routers establish full adjacencies primarily with the DR and BDR. This reduces the amount of OSPF traffic and database synchronization required on the segment. Route summarization reduces routing information, while administrative distance helps select between routing sources. Therefore, DR and BDR elections improve OSPF efficiency on multiaccess networks.

Question 72

Which command can be used to verify OSPF neighbors on a Cisco router?

1. show ip ospf neighbor
2. show vlan brief
3. show mac address-table
4. show interfaces switchport

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The show ip ospf neighbor command displays information about OSPF neighbor relationships established by a Cisco router. The output can include the neighbor router ID, priority, state, dead timer, interface, and neighbor address. This information is useful for troubleshooting adjacency problems and confirming whether OSPF routers are successfully communicating. The other commands serve different purposes: VLAN verification, MAC address table inspection, and switchport configuration. Therefore, show ip ospf neighbor is the appropriate command for checking OSPF neighbor relationships.

Question 73

What does the longest prefix match principle determine when a router has multiple matching routes?

1. The route with the highest metric
2. The route learned first
3. The route with the most specific prefix
4. The route with the lowest interface number

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

The longest prefix match principle means that a router selects the routing table entry with the most specific matching network prefix. A longer prefix represents a smaller and more specific network. For example, a /24 route is more specific than a /16 route when both match the destination address. The router therefore selects the /24 route before considering less-specific alternatives. Metrics are important when comparing routes within the same routing protocol, but the longest matching prefix is considered first during forwarding decisions. Therefore, the most specific prefix is selected.

Question 74

Which security feature helps prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from responding to client requests on a switch?

1. PortFast
2. DHCP Snooping
3. EtherChannel
4. LLDP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

DHCP Snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that helps protect a switched network from unauthorized or rogue DHCP servers. The switch classifies ports as trusted or untrusted. DHCP server responses are normally permitted only through trusted interfaces, while untrusted ports are prevented from sending unauthorized DHCP server messages. DHCP Snooping can also build a binding database containing information about clients, addresses, VLANs, and interfaces. PortFast affects STP behavior, EtherChannel bundles links, and LLDP discovers neighbors. Therefore, DHCP Snooping is the correct security feature for blocking rogue DHCP responses.

Question 75

Which authentication method is commonly used with enterprise wireless networks and a centralized authentication server?

1. WPA2-Personal
2. WEP
3. WPA2-Enterprise
4. Open authentication

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

WPA2-Enterprise is designed for business and enterprise wireless environments where users are authenticated individually through a centralized authentication system, commonly using a RADIUS server. Instead of sharing one pre-shared key among all users, each user can authenticate with individual credentials or certificates. This improves accountability and makes access management easier when employees join or leave an organization. WPA2-Personal typically uses a shared pre-shared key, while WEP is obsolete and insecure. Therefore, WPA2-Enterprise is the appropriate choice for centralized enterprise wireless authentication.

Question 76

Which protocol provides encrypted command-line access to a Cisco network device?

1. Telnet
2. FTP
3. SSH
4. TFTP

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

SSH, or Secure Shell, provides encrypted remote command-line access to network devices. It protects usernames, passwords, and management traffic from being transmitted in clear text. Cisco administrators commonly configure SSH for secure remote management instead of Telnet. Telnet provides remote CLI access but does not encrypt the communication, making credentials vulnerable to interception. FTP and TFTP are primarily used for file transfers rather than interactive device administration. Therefore, SSH is the preferred protocol when secure remote CLI access to a Cisco device is required.

Question 77

Which IPv6 address type is used to communicate with all IPv6 nodes on a local link?

1. FF02::1
2. FF02::2
3. FE80::1
4. 2001:DB8::1

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The IPv6 multicast address FF02::1 represents all IPv6 nodes on the local link. IPv6 does not use broadcast addresses in the same way as IPv4; instead, multicast addresses provide similar group communication functions. FF02 indicates a multicast address with link-local scope. FF02::2 represents all IPv6 routers on the local link. FE80::/10 is the range used for IPv6 link-local unicast addresses, while 2001:DB8::/32 is reserved for documentation examples. Therefore, FF02::1 is the correct all-nodes multicast address.

Question 78

Which Cisco security feature can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a switch port?

1. DHCP Relay
2. Port Security
3. NAT
4. OSPF

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Switch port security allows administrators to control which MAC addresses can use a switch interface and limit the number of secure MAC addresses permitted on that port. This helps reduce unauthorized device access and can protect against certain MAC flooding attacks. Administrators can configure actions such as restricting or shutting down a port when a violation occurs. DHCP Relay forwards DHCP messages between networks, NAT translates addresses, and OSPF exchanges routing information. Therefore, Port Security is the Cisco switching feature designed to control MAC address usage on an interface.

Question 79

Which data format is commonly used when exchanging structured information with REST APIs?

1. JSON
2. TXT
3. CSV
4. HTML

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

JSON, or JavaScript Object Notation, is a lightweight structured data format commonly used with REST APIs and network automation systems. It represents information using objects, key-value pairs, and arrays, making it easy for both humans and software applications to process. Network controllers and automation tools frequently use REST APIs to exchange configuration and operational data in JSON format. CSV is primarily tabular, HTML is designed for web page structure, and plain text lacks standardized structured representation. Therefore, JSON is the most appropriate format for structured REST API data exchange.

Question 80

Which networking approach uses a centralized controller to manage and program network infrastructure?

1. Traditional distributed networking
2. Manual CLI-only management
3. Software-defined networking
4. Static host configuration

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Software-defined networking, or SDN, separates network control functions from data forwarding and commonly uses a centralized controller to manage network infrastructure. The controller can provide a centralized view of network resources and use software interfaces to automate configuration and policy enforcement. This approach supports programmability and can simplify management across large network environments. Traditional networking generally distributes control functions among individual devices, while manual CLI management depends heavily on device-by-device configuration. Therefore, software-defined networking is the approach most closely associated with centralized, programmable network control.