View Full Cisco CCNP Security 300-745 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.

Q181. A security architect must isolate public-facing servers from both the Internet and the internal corporate network while permitting only explicitly required flows. Which architecture best meets this requirement?

1. Place the servers directly on the internal user VLAN
   2. Allow unrestricted routing between all security zones
   3. Place the servers in a DMZ with firewall policy controlling traffic in both directions
   4. Disable firewall logging for the servers

Correct Answer: 3. Place the servers in a DMZ with firewall policy controlling traffic in both directions

Explanation: A DMZ creates a separate security zone for systems that must be reachable from untrusted networks while preventing those systems from having unrestricted access to sensitive internal resources. Firewalls can explicitly permit required Internet-to-DMZ and DMZ-to-internal flows while denying unnecessary communication. This reduces the impact if a public-facing server is compromised. Placing Internet-facing systems directly on an internal user segment creates unnecessary exposure. Unrestricted routing defeats segmentation, and disabling logging reduces detection and investigation capability. A properly controlled DMZ is therefore a classic defense-in-depth design for public services.

Q182. An organization wants to prevent employees from accessing malicious websites while also enforcing acceptable-use categories for general web browsing. Which security control is most appropriate?

1. BGP authentication
   2. Secure web gateway with URL filtering and threat inspection
   3. DHCP relay
   4. MACsec only

Correct Answer: 2. Secure web gateway with URL filtering and threat inspection

Explanation: A secure web gateway can inspect outbound web requests, enforce URL-category policies, block known malicious destinations, scan downloaded content, and apply user-aware Internet access rules. It provides more application-focused web controls than a basic routing or Layer 2 security feature. Depending on the architecture, the gateway can be deployed on premises or delivered from the cloud for remote and branch users. BGP authentication protects routing adjacencies, DHCP relay forwards address-assignment messages, and MACsec encrypts Ethernet links. None provides the same web-policy and threat-inspection capabilities.

Q183. A company must protect routing infrastructure from unauthorized configuration changes by junior administrators. Which control best follows least privilege?

1. Give all administrators the same unrestricted account
   2. Disable command logging
   3. Use one shared enable password
   4. Apply role-based command authorization through centralized AAA

Correct Answer: 4. Apply role-based command authorization through centralized AAA

Explanation: Centralized AAA can authenticate individual administrators and authorize which commands each role is permitted to execute. A junior operator might receive monitoring and limited troubleshooting permissions while senior network engineers can make configuration changes. Accounting logs can record commands for audit and investigation. Shared unrestricted accounts make attribution difficult and grant unnecessary privileges. Disabling command logging further weakens accountability. Role-based authorization therefore protects the infrastructure management plane by ensuring that authenticated users can perform only the actions appropriate to their responsibilities.

Q184. An enterprise uses several internal security zones but wants a host in one zone to communicate with another zone only when an explicit policy permits it. Which design principle is being applied?

1. Default deny between trust zones
   2. Implicit trust of internal networks
   3. Flat network architecture
   4. Unrestricted east-west routing

Correct Answer: 1. Default deny between trust zones

Explanation: A default-deny security model blocks communication unless a specific business requirement justifies an allow rule. Applied between security zones, this principle reduces unnecessary connectivity and limits lateral movement if a workload or endpoint is compromised. Rules can then permit only required applications, protocols, users, or workloads. Assuming that all internal networks are trusted creates a broad attack surface and can allow attackers to move freely after an initial compromise. Default deny aligns with least privilege and zero-trust concepts by requiring explicit authorization for network communication rather than allowing traffic simply because it originates internally.

Q185. A security architect must protect application traffic between two services while providing mutual authentication of both endpoints. Which technology best meets the requirement?

1. Unencrypted HTTP
   2. Plain GRE
   3. Mutual TLS
   4. Anonymous FTP

Correct Answer: 3. Mutual TLS

Explanation: Mutual TLS, or mTLS, extends standard TLS by requiring both sides of a connection to present and validate certificates. This provides encrypted transport plus cryptographic authentication of the client and server identities. It is particularly useful for service-to-service communication in microservice, API, and zero-trust architectures. Plain HTTP and FTP do not provide equivalent confidentiality or strong mutual authentication. GRE provides network encapsulation but no built-in encryption or certificate-based application identity. Certificate issuance, rotation, revocation, and trust management are important operational considerations when designing an mTLS environment.

Q186. A cloud application stores customer records in object storage. Which configuration most directly reduces accidental public exposure?

1. Allow anonymous read access by default
   2. Share one public access link across departments
   3. Disable storage audit logs
   4. Block public access by default and grant explicit identity-based permissions

Correct Answer: 4. Block public access by default and grant explicit identity-based permissions

Explanation: Sensitive cloud storage should use a deny-by-default model for public access. Identity-based policies can then grant authorized applications, users, or services only the operations required. Cloud platforms often provide account- or bucket-level public-access blocks specifically to prevent accidental exposure. Logging and configuration monitoring should remain enabled so changes can be detected. Anonymous access and broadly shared links increase the chance of disclosure. Explicit identity-based authorization combined with public-access prevention is therefore a strong baseline for securing sensitive object storage.

Q187. A company wants to prevent one Kubernetes namespace from freely communicating with workloads in another namespace. Which control is most appropriate?

1. Disable container logging
   2. Kubernetes network policies or equivalent microsegmentation controls
   3. Give every pod host-network access
   4. Use one unrestricted cluster-wide security group

Correct Answer: 2. Kubernetes network policies or equivalent microsegmentation controls

Explanation: Kubernetes network policies and equivalent container-network security controls can restrict pod-to-pod communications according to namespace, labels, ports, and other workload attributes. A default-deny policy can establish isolation and then explicitly allow required traffic between application components. This helps reduce lateral movement when one workload is compromised. Giving pods broad host-network access weakens isolation, while a single unrestricted security group provides little segmentation. Workload-level network policies therefore support least privilege inside dynamic container environments where traditional perimeter firewalls may not see east-west traffic.

Q188. An application accepts XML documents from external partners. Which security risk should the architect specifically consider when configuring XML parsers?

1. XML External Entity attacks
   2. BGP route leaks
   3. ARP cache poisoning only
   4. Spanning-tree loops

Correct Answer: 1. XML External Entity attacks

Explanation: XML External Entity, or XXE, vulnerabilities can occur when an XML parser permits dangerous external entity processing. An attacker may exploit this behavior to read local files, make server-side network requests, or trigger denial-of-service conditions. Secure parser configuration should disable unnecessary external entity resolution and document type declarations where they are not required. Input validation and up-to-date parsing libraries are also important. BGP, ARP, and spanning-tree problems are network infrastructure issues rather than XML parser vulnerabilities. Application architects must account for parser-specific security behavior when accepting untrusted structured data.

Q189. A company wants to ensure that only authorized software can execute on highly sensitive administrative workstations. Which endpoint control best meets the requirement?

1. DNS caching
   2. DHCP relay
   3. GRE tunneling
   4. Application allowlisting

Correct Answer: 4. Application allowlisting

Explanation: Application allowlisting permits execution only of software that meets approved criteria, such as trusted publishers, hashes, paths, or centrally defined policies. On highly sensitive administrative workstations, this can reduce the risk of malware, unauthorized tools, or scripts executing even if a user encounters malicious content. The control should be managed carefully because legitimate software updates and administrative tools must remain functional. DNS caching, DHCP relay, and GRE provide networking functions rather than endpoint execution control. Allowlisting works best as one layer alongside EDR, patching, least privilege, and strong administrative identity controls.

Q190. A software team wants to discover hard-coded cryptographic keys and passwords before source code is merged into the main branch. Which DevSecOps control is most appropriate?

1. Increase application CPU resources
   2. Disable pull requests
   3. Automated secret scanning during code review and CI
   4. Turn off repository history

Correct Answer: 3. Automated secret scanning during code review and CI

Explanation: Automated secret scanning examines source code and commits for patterns associated with passwords, API tokens, private keys, access credentials, and other sensitive material. Running scans during pull requests and CI helps prevent secrets from entering protected branches or production artifacts. If a real secret is discovered after committing, it should generally be revoked and rotated because deleting the visible line may not remove it from repository history. Increasing compute resources has no effect on credential exposure. Secret detection is a core DevSecOps control for reducing accidental leakage of reusable credentials.

Q191. A SOC wants to identify unusual outbound data transfers from systems that normally send very little Internet traffic. Which analytical approach is most useful?

1. Establish a normal traffic baseline and alert on significant deviations
   2. Disable flow monitoring
   3. Treat all traffic volume as identical
   4. Delete historical telemetry every hour

Correct Answer: 1. Establish a normal traffic baseline and alert on significant deviations

Explanation: Behavioral baselining helps identify deviations from normal activity. If a server typically sends only a small amount of outbound traffic, a sudden large transfer to an unusual destination can indicate exfiltration, backup misconfiguration, or another abnormal event. Network flow records, proxy logs, cloud telemetry, and other sources can support this analysis. Baselines should account for expected seasonal or operational changes to reduce false positives. Disabling or rapidly deleting telemetry makes anomaly detection and investigation difficult. Behavioral analysis is particularly valuable when malicious traffic does not match a known signature.

Q192. A SOC receives threat intelligence identifying a malicious domain used for command and control. Which response most directly reduces further communication with that infrastructure?

1. Increase local disk space
   2. Block the domain through applicable DNS, proxy, or security enforcement controls
   3. Disable asset inventory
   4. Remove endpoint logging

Correct Answer: 2. Block the domain through applicable DNS, proxy, or security enforcement controls

Explanation: Once a command-and-control domain has been validated as malicious, security controls can block resolution or communication to that infrastructure. Protective DNS, secure web gateways, firewalls, endpoint controls, and proxies can be used depending on the environment and indicator type. Teams should also search historical telemetry to identify systems that previously communicated with the domain because blocking future traffic alone does not remediate compromised endpoints. Increasing storage or disabling logs provides no containment benefit. Threat intelligence is most valuable when it is translated into appropriate detection, hunting, and enforcement actions.

Q193. During risk analysis, a security team evaluates the level of risk that exists before any safeguards are considered. What type of risk is being assessed?

1. Residual risk
   2. Transferred risk
   3. Inherent risk
   4. Accepted risk

Correct Answer: 3. Inherent risk

Explanation: Inherent risk represents the level of exposure that exists before the organization considers the effect of security controls. After safeguards such as segmentation, MFA, encryption, and monitoring are applied, the remaining exposure is residual risk. Understanding the difference allows decision-makers to evaluate how much a control reduces risk and whether additional treatment is required. Risk transfer and acceptance are treatment decisions rather than the baseline exposure itself. Security architects often compare inherent and residual risk to show how the proposed design changes the organization’s risk posture.

Q194. A company purchases cyber insurance to offset some financial consequences of a potential breach. Which risk-treatment strategy does this represent?

1. Risk transfer
   2. Risk avoidance
   3. Risk elimination
   4. Risk amplification

Correct Answer: 1. Risk transfer

Explanation: Cyber insurance is a common example of risk transfer because some financial impact is shifted to another organization under the terms of the insurance contract. Transfer does not eliminate the underlying threat or vulnerability. The organization still needs controls to reduce incident likelihood and meet policy conditions. Risk avoidance would involve discontinuing the activity that creates the exposure. Risk mitigation reduces probability or impact through safeguards, while risk acceptance knowingly retains the remaining exposure. Risk treatment decisions should be made in the context of business impact, cost, legal requirements, and the organization’s risk tolerance.

Q195. Which document defines the amount and type of risk an organization is generally willing to pursue or retain in support of its business objectives?

1. Routing table
   2. Packet capture
   3. Risk appetite statement
   4. DHCP scope

Correct Answer: 4. Risk appetite statement

Explanation: A risk appetite statement describes the broad level and categories of risk an organization is willing to accept or pursue while achieving business objectives. Security architects use this guidance when deciding how aggressively systems must be protected and which residual risks require escalation. Risk tolerance can provide more specific boundaries around particular categories or activities. A routing table, packet capture, or DHCP scope contains technical network information and does not express management’s willingness to accept business risk. Architectural security decisions should align with the organization’s documented risk appetite rather than relying solely on technical preferences.

Q196. A security architect needs a requirement stating that administrators must use MFA for production access. What type of requirement is this primarily?

1. Functional business feature
   2. Security requirement
   3. Marketing requirement
   4. Physical rack-layout requirement

Correct Answer: 2. Security requirement

Explanation: Requiring MFA for production administrators is a security requirement because it defines a control needed to protect sensitive systems. Good security requirements should be specific, measurable, testable, and tied to risk or policy. For example, the requirement can specify which administrative interfaces are covered, which authentication factors are acceptable, and whether exceptions are permitted. This allows architecture, implementation, and testing teams to verify compliance objectively. Although security requirements support business objectives, they are distinct from application functionality, marketing goals, or physical equipment-layout requirements.

Q197. A CI/CD workflow builds production applications using disposable build agents. What security benefit do ephemeral build agents provide?

1. They reduce persistence of compromise and residual secrets between builds
   2. They eliminate the need for access control
   3. They guarantee source code has no vulnerabilities
   4. They remove the need for artifact signing

Correct Answer: 1. They reduce persistence of compromise and residual secrets between builds

Explanation: Ephemeral build agents are created for a build and destroyed afterward, reducing the chance that malware, temporary credentials, cached files, or malicious modifications persist between pipeline runs. This improves isolation compared with long-lived build servers that accumulate state over time. Ephemeral agents still require secure images, least-privilege identities, dependency controls, logging, and trusted artifact handling. They do not eliminate access control or guarantee that application code is secure. Artifact signing remains valuable because it provides integrity and provenance assurance for outputs regardless of how the build worker was provisioned.

Q198. A security automation platform receives a webhook containing data from an external source. How should that payload be handled?

1. Treat it as trusted because it reached the webhook endpoint
   2. Execute all commands embedded in the payload
   3. Validate authentication, integrity, schema, and input before taking actions
   4. Give the sender permanent administrative permissions

Correct Answer: 4. Validate authentication, integrity, schema, and input before taking actions

Explanation: Webhook endpoints receive externally supplied input and should therefore treat payloads as untrusted until validated. Controls can include sender authentication, signatures or message authentication codes, replay protection, schema validation, size limits, and strict parsing. The automation should also use least-privilege permissions when acting on validated events. Blindly executing payload content creates an injection and unauthorized-action risk. Merely reaching the webhook endpoint does not prove that the sender is legitimate. Secure webhook design is essential because automation can amplify the impact of malicious or malformed input.

Q199. A machine-learning intrusion-detection model is intentionally given small crafted modifications to malicious traffic that cause it to classify the activity as benign. Which AI security threat does this represent?

1. Adversarial evasion
   2. Data backup failure
   3. Route summarization
   4. DHCP starvation

Correct Answer: 2. Adversarial evasion

Explanation: Adversarial evasion involves deliberately manipulating model inputs at inference time so the model produces an incorrect classification. In a security context, attackers might alter features of malicious traffic, malware, or other artifacts to avoid detection while preserving the underlying malicious function. This differs from model poisoning, which manipulates training data or the learning process. Defenses can include robust feature engineering, adversarial testing, ensemble detection, behavioral correlation, and human investigation. Route summarization and DHCP starvation are traditional network concepts and do not describe attacks against machine-learning inference.

Q200. An enterprise wants AI-generated remediation suggestions but requires every proposed infrastructure change to be verified against deterministic policy before implementation. What is the main benefit?

1. It removes the need for authentication
   2. It guarantees the AI will never make a mistake
   3. It places a predictable enforcement layer between AI output and production changes
   4. It gives the AI unrestricted administrative access

Correct Answer: 3. It places a predictable enforcement layer between AI output and production changes

Explanation: Generative AI can produce useful remediation ideas, but its output is probabilistic and may contain incorrect or unsafe recommendations. Deterministic policy validation provides a consistent enforcement layer that checks proposed changes against known technical and security constraints before deployment. For example, policy-as-code could reject overly broad firewall rules even if an AI recommended them. Authentication, logging, and authorization remain necessary, and AI mistakes are still possible. Separating generation from deterministic validation helps organizations benefit from AI assistance without making the language model itself the final security authority.