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Question 321.

A company wants a backup strategy in which each backup job copies all selected data regardless of what was backed up previously. Which backup type should be used?

1. Full backup
   2. Incremental backup
   3. Differential backup
   4. Snapshot only

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A full backup copies all selected data each time the backup job runs. This makes restoration relatively straightforward because the technician can restore from a single complete backup set, but full backups typically require the most storage space and the longest backup window. Incremental backups copy only data changed since the last backup of any type, while differential backups copy data changed since the most recent full backup. Snapshots can preserve a point-in-time state but should not automatically be considered a complete independent backup. A practical backup strategy often combines full backups with incremental or differential backups to balance storage consumption, backup duration, and recovery speed. Regardless of backup type, technicians should verify that backups complete successfully and periodically test restores.

Question 322.

Which backup type copies only files that have changed since the most recent backup, whether that previous backup was full or incremental?

1. Full backup
   2. Differential backup
   3. Mirror only
   4. Incremental backup

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

An incremental backup copies only data that has changed since the most recent backup, whether that previous backup was a full or another incremental backup. This makes incremental backups efficient in terms of backup time and storage consumption. The trade-off is that restoration can require the most recent full backup plus every subsequent incremental backup in sequence. A differential backup, by contrast, copies all data changed since the last full backup. Full backups copy the entire selected data set every time. Because the recovery chain for incrementals can involve multiple backup sets, organizations should protect each component carefully and test restores regularly. A missing or corrupted incremental backup in the chain can complicate or prevent complete recovery.

Question 323.

A technician performs a full backup on Sunday. On Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, the backup software copies all data that has changed since Sunday. What type of backup is being performed on those weekdays?

1. Incremental
   2. Differential
   3. Synthetic full
   4. Bare-metal only

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A differential backup copies all data that has changed since the most recent full backup. If the full backup was completed on Sunday, Monday’s differential contains changes since Sunday, Tuesday’s contains all changes since Sunday, and Wednesday’s again contains all changes since Sunday. This means differential backups generally grow larger as more time passes after the full backup. Their main recovery advantage is that only the full backup and the most recent differential backup are normally needed for restoration. Incremental backups instead copy only changes since the previous backup, which keeps each backup smaller but increases the number of backup sets needed for a full restore. Backup design should consider both recovery time and storage efficiency.

Question 324.

Which backup practice most directly confirms that stored backup data can actually be used during a recovery event?

1. Checking free disk space only
   2. Reading the backup job name
   3. Performing a test restore
   4. Renaming backup files

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A test restore is one of the most important parts of backup management because it confirms that the backup data can actually be recovered successfully. A backup job may report success while still containing incomplete, corrupt, inaccessible, or incorrectly configured data. Testing a restore helps validate both the backup contents and the recovery procedure. Checking free disk space may confirm capacity but does not prove that data is usable. Reading the job name or renaming files provides no meaningful recovery assurance. Organizations should periodically test restoration of representative files, applications, or systems and document the results. Recovery objectives should also be reviewed so technicians know how quickly data must be restored and how much data loss is acceptable.

Question 325.

Which backup strategy concept recommends keeping three copies of data, on two different types of media, with at least one copy stored off-site?

1. 3-2-1 backup strategy
   2. First-in, first-out
   3. Least privilege
   4. Single sign-on

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The 3-2-1 backup strategy recommends maintaining three copies of important data, storing those copies on two different types of media, and keeping at least one copy off-site. This reduces the risk that a single local event, hardware failure, theft, ransomware attack, or environmental incident destroys both production data and backups. The exact implementation can vary and may include local storage, cloud storage, removable media, or geographically separate systems. First-in, first-out is a sequencing concept, least privilege relates to access control, and single sign-on is an authentication convenience. A strong backup strategy should also include encryption where appropriate, restricted backup access, monitoring, retention planning, and regular restore testing.

Question 326.

A company wants to minimize the amount of business data that could be lost after an outage. Which disaster-recovery metric describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?

1. SLA
   2. MTTR
   3. RTO
   4. RPO

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Recovery Point Objective, or RPO, describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. For example, an RPO of one hour means the organization should design backups or replication so that no more than roughly one hour of recent data is lost after a failure. Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, instead describes how quickly a system or service must be restored after an outage. MTTR commonly refers to mean time to repair or recover, depending on context, while an SLA defines agreed service commitments. Backup frequency is strongly influenced by RPO. If the business requires an RPO of 15 minutes, a single nightly backup would not satisfy that requirement.

Question 327.

Which disaster-recovery metric describes how quickly a service must be restored after an outage?

1. RPO
   2. RTO
   3. Password age
   4. MTBF only

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, specifies the target maximum amount of time a system or service can remain unavailable after a disruption. A shorter RTO usually requires faster recovery technologies, better automation, preconfigured spare capacity, or more resilient infrastructure. RPO focuses on acceptable data loss measured in time, not downtime. Password age and MTBF do not define the required restoration window. Technicians should understand both RTO and RPO because they influence backup design, recovery procedures, redundancy, and cost. A business may tolerate several hours of downtime but only a few minutes of data loss, or the opposite. Disaster-recovery planning should therefore reflect business requirements rather than applying the same recovery approach to every system.

Question 328.

A technician is preparing to modify production software during a scheduled maintenance window. Which item should be prepared before the change so the system can be returned to its previous state if the deployment fails?

1. Screen saver policy
   2. Browser cache
   3. Rollback plan
   4. Printer queue

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A rollback or backout plan describes how the technician will return the environment to its previous known-good state if the planned change produces unexpected problems. It should be developed before the change begins, not after the failure occurs. Depending on the situation, the rollback plan might involve restoring a configuration backup, uninstalling an update, reverting a virtual machine snapshot where appropriate, redeploying a previous application version, or restoring data. Screen saver settings, browser cache, and printer queues are unrelated. Good change management also includes defining scope, assessing risk, obtaining approval, communicating impact, scheduling an appropriate maintenance window, and documenting the final outcome.

Question 329.

Which document provides information about handling, storage, hazards, and emergency procedures for a potentially dangerous chemical used in the workplace?

1. Safety Data Sheet
   2. EULA
   3. Acceptable Use Policy
   4. Change request

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A Safety Data Sheet, or SDS, provides information about chemical hazards, safe handling, storage requirements, exposure controls, first aid, spill response, and other safety considerations. Technicians may encounter cleaning chemicals, batteries, solvents, toner, or other materials that require appropriate safety practices. An EULA defines software licensing terms, an Acceptable Use Policy governs how organizational technology may be used, and a change request documents a proposed technical change. Technicians should follow the SDS and organizational procedures when handling hazardous materials and should use required personal protective equipment. Unknown chemicals should not be mixed or disposed of casually because improper handling can create health, fire, environmental, or equipment risks.

Question 330.

A swollen lithium-ion laptop battery is discovered during repair. What should the technician do?

1. Puncture it to release pressure
   2. Follow approved hazardous-material and battery-disposal procedures
   3. Place it in ordinary office trash
   4. Continue charging it until testing is complete

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A swollen lithium-ion battery should be treated as a safety hazard. The technician should stop using the battery, avoid puncturing, crushing, bending, or charging it, and follow organizational procedures for safe removal, storage, and disposal. Lithium-ion batteries can catch fire or release hazardous material if damaged. Placing the battery in ordinary trash is inappropriate and may violate local environmental or safety requirements. Continuing to charge a swollen battery increases risk. Technicians should consult the manufacturer guidance, Safety Data Sheet where applicable, and approved recycling or hazardous-waste procedures. The repair area should also be kept clear of ignition sources, and damaged batteries should be handled only using approved methods.

Question 331.

Which operational practice is most appropriate when a technician needs to dispose of used printer toner cartridges?

1. Follow manufacturer and organizational recycling or disposal procedures
   2. Open the cartridge and empty toner into a sink
   3. Burn the cartridge
   4. Place every cartridge in general waste regardless of policy

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Used toner cartridges should be handled according to manufacturer recommendations, organizational policy, and applicable recycling or waste-disposal requirements. Many vendors provide cartridge return or recycling programs, and organizations may have designated collection procedures. Opening a cartridge can release fine toner particles, while burning cartridges can create hazardous emissions and fire risk. Simply placing every cartridge into general waste may violate company or environmental policy. Technicians should minimize unnecessary exposure to toner, wash affected skin appropriately if contact occurs, and consult relevant safety documentation. Responsible disposal is part of operational procedure and helps reduce environmental impact while protecting staff from avoidable hazards.

Question 332.

A technician receives a support call from an upset customer who is using technical terms incorrectly. What is the best communication approach?

1. Correct the customer repeatedly before discussing the problem
   2. End the call because the customer is upset
   3. Use even more technical terminology
   4. Remain professional, listen carefully, and explain the solution in clear language

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A technician should remain professional, listen actively, and communicate in language the customer can understand. The goal is to resolve the technical issue while maintaining a respectful support experience. Correcting every misuse of technical terminology may embarrass or frustrate the customer and rarely helps diagnose the actual problem. Ending the call simply because a customer is upset is inappropriate unless organizational escalation or safety procedures require it. Excessive jargon can make communication worse. The technician should ask focused questions, avoid interrupting unnecessarily, set realistic expectations, and summarize the planned next steps. When escalation is required, the technician should explain what will happen rather than making promises outside their authority.

Question 333.

A technician knows that a repair will take approximately two hours, but the customer expects it to be finished in ten minutes. What should the technician do?

1. Promise ten minutes to avoid upsetting the customer
   2. Set a realistic expectation and explain the estimated completion time
   3. Ignore the customer’s question
   4. Claim that another technician caused the delay

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Setting realistic expectations is a key part of professional technical support. If the repair is likely to require approximately two hours, the technician should communicate that estimate clearly and explain any important dependencies or uncertainty. Promising an unrealistic completion time may temporarily satisfy the customer but creates distrust when the commitment cannot be met. Ignoring the question provides poor service, and blaming coworkers is unprofessional. The technician should also provide updates if the situation changes significantly. Clear communication about scope, timing, risk, and next steps helps reduce frustration and allows customers to make informed decisions about their work while the system is being serviced.

Question 334.

Which file extension is most commonly associated with a Windows PowerShell script?

1. .sh
   2. .bat
   3. .ps1
   4. .py

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

PowerShell scripts commonly use the .ps1 file extension. PowerShell is widely used for Windows administration, configuration, automation, reporting, and management of Microsoft and other platforms. A .sh file is generally associated with shell scripts on Unix-like systems, .bat is commonly used for traditional Windows batch scripts, and .py identifies Python source files. Scripts can perform powerful administrative actions, so technicians should review scripts from untrusted sources before executing them. Organizations may also use execution policies, code signing, application control, and least-privilege practices to reduce script-related risk. Running a script with administrative privileges increases the potential impact of mistakes or malicious code.

Question 335.

Which file extension is commonly associated with a traditional Windows batch script?

1. .bat
   2. .ps1
   3. .sh
   4. .js only

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The .bat extension is commonly used for Windows batch files containing command-line instructions that are processed by the Windows command interpreter. Batch scripts are often used for simple automation, file operations, launching applications, mapping network drives, and administrative tasks. PowerShell scripts commonly use .ps1, Unix and Linux shell scripts often use .sh, and JavaScript commonly uses .js. Batch files can still make significant system changes, especially when run with elevated rights, so their contents should be reviewed before execution. Technicians should avoid blindly running scripts downloaded from unknown sources because malicious or incorrect commands could delete data, change system configuration, or compromise security.

Question 336.

Which Linux command allows an authorized user to execute a command with elevated privileges, commonly as root?

1. grep
   2. ls
   3. pwd
   4. sudo

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The sudo command allows authorized Linux users to execute specific commands with elevated privileges, commonly as the root user. This supports least privilege because administrators do not need to remain logged in as root for normal activities. grep searches text for matching patterns, ls lists files and directories, and pwd displays the current working directory. Sudo access should be controlled carefully because elevated commands can modify critical configuration, install software, alter permissions, or delete important data. Technicians should verify commands before executing them with sudo and should avoid unnecessarily broad privilege assignments. Administrative activity may also be logged, which improves accountability compared with unrestricted shared root access.

Question 337.

Which Linux command displays a snapshot of currently running processes?

1. ps
   2. chmod
   3. man
   4. cp

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The ps command displays information about currently running Linux processes. Options can be used to show additional details such as process IDs, parent processes, terminal associations, and command names. Technicians often use ps together with other tools such as grep, top, or kill when troubleshooting applications and services. chmod changes file permissions, man displays manual pages, and cp copies files. A single ps command provides a point-in-time view rather than continuous real-time monitoring. If a technician identifies a suspicious or unresponsive process, it should be investigated before termination because killing a critical service can interrupt applications or system functionality.

Question 338.

A technician needs to search a text log file for every line containing the word “error” on Linux. Which command is most appropriate?

1. chmod
   2. grep
   3. mv
   4. pwd

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The grep command searches text for matching patterns and is widely used for analyzing Linux configuration files, command output, and logs. A technician can search a log for the word “error” and combine grep with other commands through pipes to narrow large amounts of information. chmod changes permissions, mv moves or renames files, and pwd displays the current directory. Search behavior can be modified with options for case-insensitive matching, line numbers, recursive searches, and other criteria. Because Linux logs can be very large, filtering with grep can quickly surface relevant entries without manually reading every line.

Question 339.

Which macOS utility stores and manages saved passwords, certificates, and cryptographic keys?

1. Disk Utility
   2. Time Machine
   3. Keychain Access
   4. Mission Control

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Keychain Access is the macOS utility used to view and manage stored passwords, certificates, secure notes, keys, and other credential-related items. It can be useful when troubleshooting authentication, certificate, Wi-Fi, or application credential problems. Disk Utility manages storage devices and file systems, Time Machine provides backups, and Mission Control organizes open windows and workspaces. Technicians should be careful when deleting or modifying keychain entries because applications may depend on them. If a saved credential is suspected to be stale, the technician should confirm the affected service and understand how the credential will be recreated before removing it. Protecting the user’s login credentials also protects many stored keychain items.

Question 340.

A technician completes a script deployment that changes configuration on 100 workstations. All systems are tested and the deployment succeeds. What should be done before the change is formally closed?

1. Delete the deployment records
   2. Disable monitoring temporarily
   3. Make additional unrelated changes
   4. Document the results, update the change record, and record any lessons learned

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A completed change should be formally documented after implementation and validation. The technician should update the change record with the actual deployment results, systems affected, testing performed, any deviations from the original plan, problems encountered, corrective actions, and lessons learned. This information helps future technicians understand what changed and can improve later deployments. Deleting records removes accountability, disabling monitoring reduces visibility, and adding unrelated modifications without authorization can create unnecessary risk. Proper closure is an important part of change management because a successful technical implementation is only one part of the process. Documentation, approval status, validation, and final communication should all be completed so the organization has a reliable record of the production change.