View Full CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 41.

A Windows computer displays a blue screen immediately after a newly installed driver loads. Which action should the technician try first?

1. Boot into Safe Mode and roll back the driver
   2. Format the system drive
   3. Replace the power supply
   4. Configure a new DNS server

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Safe Mode starts Windows with a limited set of drivers and services, making it useful when a newly installed driver prevents normal startup. The technician can boot into Safe Mode, open Device Manager, identify the recently updated device, and attempt to roll back or remove the problematic driver. Formatting the drive would be unnecessarily destructive and should not be an initial troubleshooting step. A power supply replacement would only make sense if power-related symptoms were present, while DNS configuration has no relationship to a driver-induced blue screen. The least disruptive corrective action should generally be attempted first.

Question 42.

Which Windows command is used to repair the Windows component store when System File Checker cannot repair corrupted system files?

1. tracert
   2. netstat
   3. gpresult
   4. DISM

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

DISM, or Deployment Image Servicing and Management, can service and repair a Windows image, including the component store used by System File Checker. A common troubleshooting sequence is to use DISM to repair the Windows image and then run sfc /scannow again to verify and replace damaged protected system files. tracert examines network routing, netstat displays network connections and listening ports, and gpresult reports Group Policy information. DISM is therefore the appropriate Windows servicing tool when deeper operating-system image corruption prevents SFC from completing repairs successfully.

Question 43.

A technician wants to determine whether a Windows computer has enough available physical memory and whether a process is consuming excessive RAM. Which utility should be used?

1. Disk Cleanup
   2. Task Manager
   3. Disk Management
   4. Registry Editor

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Task Manager provides real-time information about processor, memory, disk, network, and GPU utilization. The Processes and Performance sections can show which applications are consuming the most RAM and how much physical memory remains available. This makes it one of the fastest tools for diagnosing memory pressure or a runaway application. Disk Cleanup removes temporary and unnecessary files, Disk Management handles disks and partitions, and Registry Editor modifies system configuration entries. When the issue concerns current resource utilization, Task Manager is the most appropriate first-line diagnostic utility.

Question 44.

Which Windows feature allows a technician to review historical reliability problems such as application crashes, failed updates, and hardware errors in a timeline?

1. Device Manager
   2. Task Scheduler
   3. Reliability Monitor
   4. Disk Cleanup

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Reliability Monitor presents a graphical timeline of Windows stability events, including application failures, Windows failures, hardware errors, successful updates, and other important events. It can be especially helpful when a user reports that a computer “started acting strangely a few days ago” because the technician can correlate symptoms with recent software installations or failures. Device Manager focuses on hardware and drivers, Task Scheduler manages automated tasks, and Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files. Reliability Monitor complements Event Viewer by providing a more summarized historical view of system stability.

Question 45.

A technician needs to configure Windows to display hidden files and file extensions. Which utility should be used?

1. File Explorer Options
   2. Services
   3. Windows Defender Firewall
   4. Task Scheduler

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

File Explorer Options provides settings that control how files and folders are displayed. A technician can configure Windows to show hidden files, folders, and drives and to display file name extensions for known file types. Showing extensions can be particularly useful during troubleshooting and security investigations because malicious files may attempt to disguise their actual type. Services manages background services, Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic, and Task Scheduler automates tasks. File Explorer Options is therefore the appropriate location for adjusting common file and folder visibility settings.

Question 46.

Which Windows command can be used to map a drive letter to a shared network folder?

1. taskkill
   2. net use
   3. chkdsk
   4. hostname

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The net use command can create, view, and remove connections to shared network resources. A technician can use it to map a network share to a drive letter and, when necessary, specify credentials for the connection. This can be useful for scripts, remote administration, and troubleshooting access to shared folders. taskkill terminates running processes, chkdsk checks file-system integrity, and hostname displays the local computer’s name. When a network path needs to be associated with a Windows drive letter from the command line, net use is the correct command.

Question 47.

Which command displays the name of the local Windows computer?

1. whoami
   2. ipconfig
   3. hostname
   4. netstat

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The hostname command displays the computer’s configured host name. This is useful when technicians work remotely, use command-line sessions on multiple systems, or need to verify a machine’s identity before making changes. whoami displays the currently logged-in user context, ipconfig displays network configuration, and netstat provides network connection and port information. Although computer names can also be viewed through graphical Windows settings, the hostname command provides a quick command-line method for obtaining this information.

Question 48.

Which Windows command displays the currently logged-in user’s account name and security context?

1. hostname
   2. gpupdate
   3. format
   4. whoami

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The whoami command displays the account under which the current command session is running. This can help a technician confirm whether a command prompt is running under the expected user or administrative context. Additional options can provide more information about groups and privileges. hostname identifies the computer rather than the current user, gpupdate refreshes Group Policy, and format prepares a storage volume for use. whoami is particularly useful when troubleshooting permissions or confirming identity during remote support and administrative work.

Question 49.

A Windows computer has very little free storage because temporary installation files and cached system files have accumulated. Which utility should a technician use first?

1. Disk Cleanup
   2. Device Manager
   3. Event Viewer
   4. Services

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Disk Cleanup can identify and remove categories of unnecessary files such as temporary files, cached data, thumbnails, and other system-generated content. Depending on permissions and Windows version, additional system files may also be available for cleanup. It is an appropriate first step when low disk space is caused by accumulated temporary content. Device Manager manages hardware, Event Viewer provides diagnostic logs, and Services controls background services. A technician should still verify which files are being removed and avoid deleting user data merely to recover storage space.

Question 50.

Which Windows feature provides encryption for individual files and folders on an NTFS volume?

1. BitLocker
   2. Encrypting File System
   3. Windows Defender Firewall
   4. Secure Boot

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Encrypting File System, or EFS, can encrypt individual files and folders stored on supported NTFS volumes. Encryption is tied to the user’s encryption certificate and helps protect file contents from unauthorized access. BitLocker generally encrypts an entire volume rather than selected individual files. Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic, while Secure Boot helps ensure that trusted boot components are loaded during system startup. EFS recovery certificates and encryption keys should be protected carefully because loss of the required credentials can make encrypted files inaccessible.

Question 51.

Which security technology helps prevent unauthorized operating-system boot components from loading during system startup?

1. EFS
   2. NTFS permissions
   3. Secure Boot
   4. Screen lock

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Secure Boot is a UEFI security capability that verifies trusted digital signatures during the boot process and helps prevent unauthorized or malicious boot components from loading. It provides protection against certain bootkits and other attacks that attempt to compromise a computer before the operating system’s security controls are active. EFS encrypts individual files, NTFS permissions control file-system access, and a screen lock protects an active user session. Secure Boot operates at an earlier stage in the startup chain and is an important security requirement in modern Windows environments.

Question 52.

Which Windows security feature can use TPM hardware to help protect the encryption keys for a fully encrypted system drive?

1. File History
   2. System Restore
   3. Windows Sandbox
   4. BitLocker

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

BitLocker provides full-volume encryption and can use a Trusted Platform Module to help securely protect encryption keys and validate aspects of the boot environment. If the drive is removed from the computer or the system is stolen, BitLocker can help prevent unauthorized access to stored information. File History maintains versions of user files, System Restore rolls back certain Windows configuration changes, and Windows Sandbox creates an isolated temporary environment. Organizations using BitLocker should also manage recovery keys securely because they may be needed if normal unlocking mechanisms fail.

Question 53.

Which malware type hides itself deeply within an operating system and may provide privileged access to an attacker?

1. Rootkit
   2. Adware
   3. Spam
   4. Cookie

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A rootkit is malicious software designed to hide its presence or the presence of other malicious activity while maintaining privileged access to a system. Rootkits can operate at different levels of the operating system and may be difficult to detect using ordinary user-level tools. Adware primarily displays unwanted advertising, spam refers to unsolicited messages, and cookies are normally small pieces of browser data rather than malware by definition. Rootkit infections can be serious enough that rebuilding or reimaging the system from trusted media may sometimes be safer than attempting partial remediation.

Question 54.

A caller claims to be from the help desk and asks a user to provide a password over the telephone. Which type of social-engineering attack is this most likely to represent?

1. Tailgating
   2. Vishing
   3. Shoulder surfing
   4. Dumpster diving

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Vishing is voice-based phishing in which an attacker uses telephone calls or voice communication to trick a victim into revealing information or performing an unsafe action. The caller may impersonate technical support, a bank, a government agency, or another trusted organization. Tailgating involves following an authorized person into a restricted area, shoulder surfing involves observing sensitive information being entered, and dumpster diving involves searching discarded materials. Users should verify unexpected support calls through trusted channels and should not disclose passwords or authentication codes to unsolicited callers.

Question 55.

Which social-engineering technique involves an unauthorized person entering a secure area by closely following an authorized employee through a controlled door?

1. Whaling
   2. Phishing
   3. Tailgating
   4. Vishing

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person gains physical access to a restricted area by following an authorized individual through an access-controlled entrance. Attackers may rely on politeness, carry packages to encourage someone to hold a door, or pretend that their badge is not functioning. Whaling targets high-value individuals through phishing, standard phishing commonly uses fraudulent messages, and vishing uses voice communication. Organizations can reduce tailgating through security awareness, access controls, mantraps where appropriate, security personnel, and policies requiring each person to authenticate individually.

Question 56.

Which security concept uses physical barriers, authentication systems, cameras, and access procedures to protect facilities from unauthorized entry?

1. Logical access control only
   2. Software patching
   3. Data compression
   4. Physical security

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Physical security protects facilities, equipment, and people against unauthorized physical access, theft, damage, and environmental threats. Controls can include locks, badges, guards, surveillance cameras, fences, lighting, mantraps, alarms, and visitor-management procedures. Logical controls such as passwords and permissions protect digital resources but cannot prevent someone from physically stealing an unprotected device. Patching and compression address software maintenance and storage efficiency rather than facility access. Effective cybersecurity includes both logical and physical protections because physical access can sometimes allow attackers to bypass technical controls.

Question 57.

Which password policy setting prevents users from immediately reusing one of their recently used passwords?

1. Password history
   2. Account lockout threshold
   3. Screen lock timeout
   4. File permissions

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Password history stores information about previously used passwords and prevents users from immediately cycling back to a recent password. This is particularly useful when an organization also enforces password changes and wants to discourage trivial password reuse. An account lockout threshold determines how many failed authentication attempts are permitted before an account is locked. Screen lock timeout controls unattended-session exposure, while file permissions govern access to stored resources. Password history should be combined with appropriate password length, MFA, and other authentication controls rather than treated as a complete security solution by itself.

Question 58.

Which security principle requires users to receive only the access permissions needed to perform their current responsibilities?

1. Availability
   2. Least privilege
   3. Open access
   4. Data remanence

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Least privilege means giving users, services, and applications only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their authorized functions. Limiting privileges reduces the damage that can result from mistakes, malware, insider misuse, or stolen credentials. A standard office user, for example, should not routinely operate with local administrator rights unless the job requires them. Availability is concerned with keeping systems accessible, while data remanence refers to residual information that can remain on storage media. Open access is generally inconsistent with secure permission design. Least privilege is a foundational principle of secure account management.

Question 59.

A departing employee’s laptop contains highly sensitive company information and will be sent for recycling. Which action provides the strongest protection against future recovery of the stored information?

1. Delete the user profile
   2. Empty the Recycle Bin
   3. Physically destroy the storage device according to company policy
   4. Rename the sensitive folders

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Physical destruction is one of the strongest media-disposal methods when a storage device will not be reused and contains highly sensitive information. Depending on the storage technology and company policy, shredding, crushing, pulverizing, or another approved destruction process can make data recovery impractical. Simply deleting files, emptying the Recycle Bin, or renaming folders does not securely erase the underlying data. In other circumstances, secure erasure or cryptographic erase may be appropriate. Technicians should always follow organizational policy, regulatory requirements, and documented chain-of-custody procedures when disposing of sensitive media.

Question 60.

A technician has identified the likely cause of a recurring application problem and has developed a proposed solution. According to standard troubleshooting methodology, what should happen before permanently implementing the solution?

1. Immediately close the support ticket
   2. Remove all application logs
   3. Replace unrelated hardware
   4. Test the theory to determine the cause and establish a plan of action

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A structured troubleshooting process requires the technician to test the theory of probable cause before proceeding with a final corrective action. Once the cause has been confirmed, the technician can establish and implement a plan of action while considering potential side effects. Afterward, full system functionality should be verified and preventive measures considered before the solution is documented. Closing the ticket too early can leave the problem unresolved, while removing evidence or replacing unrelated hardware can complicate troubleshooting. Following an organized methodology reduces unnecessary changes and helps produce repeatable, supportable results.