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Question 81.

A Windows 11 computer fails to boot after a recent configuration change. Which recovery environment option is most appropriate for accessing troubleshooting tools such as Startup Repair and System Restore?

1. Windows Recovery Environment
   2. Disk Cleanup
   3. Task Scheduler
   4. BitLocker

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Windows Recovery Environment, commonly called WinRE, provides troubleshooting and recovery tools when Windows cannot start normally. It can provide access to Startup Repair, System Restore, Command Prompt, startup settings, and other recovery options. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Task Scheduler automates tasks, and BitLocker encrypts storage volumes. WinRE is especially valuable when the normal desktop is inaccessible because the technician can perform repair operations from outside the regular Windows session. The least disruptive recovery tool should generally be attempted before reinstalling the operating system or erasing user data.

Question 82.

Which Windows recovery option attempts to automatically fix problems that prevent Windows from starting correctly?

1. File History
   2. Startup Repair
   3. Storage Spaces
   4. Disk Cleanup

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Startup Repair is a Windows recovery feature designed to diagnose and repair certain problems that prevent Windows from booting. It can address issues involving startup configuration, damaged system files, or other boot-related conditions when supported. File History protects versions of user files, Storage Spaces provides storage pooling and resiliency, and Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary data. Startup Repair is a logical early choice when Windows fails during the boot process and the technician wants to attempt an automated repair before moving to more invasive recovery options.

Question 83.

A technician wants to start Windows using only essential drivers and services to troubleshoot a suspected software conflict. Which startup option should be selected?

1. Hibernate
   2. Fast Startup
   3. Safe Mode
   4. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Safe Mode starts Windows with a reduced set of drivers and services. This helps technicians determine whether a problem is being caused by a third-party driver, startup application, service, or other optional component. If the problem disappears in Safe Mode, the technician can then isolate the conflicting component. Hibernate saves the current session to disk, Fast Startup speeds normal startup in supported configurations, and Remote Desktop provides remote access. Safe Mode is therefore specifically intended for diagnostic startup and troubleshooting.

Question 84.

Which Windows utility should a technician use to modify the system boot configuration and selectively disable startup services during troubleshooting?

1. Event Viewer
   2. Device Manager
   3. Disk Management
   4. System Configuration

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

System Configuration, commonly launched with msconfig, provides options for troubleshooting Windows startup behavior. It can help technicians configure diagnostic startup settings, modify boot options, and selectively control certain services. This can be useful when isolating software conflicts that occur during startup. Event Viewer displays logs, Device Manager handles hardware and drivers, and Disk Management manages disks and partitions. System Configuration should be used carefully because disabling essential services can affect operating-system functionality. It is primarily a troubleshooting tool rather than a routine performance-optimization utility.

Question 85.

Which command repairs the Windows boot configuration database in supported recovery scenarios?

1. bootrec
   2. nslookup
   3. gpupdate
   4. netstat

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The bootrec utility can be used from the Windows recovery environment to troubleshoot and repair certain startup problems involving boot records and the Boot Configuration Data store. Depending on the scenario, supported options can help repair boot information or rebuild boot configuration. nslookup troubleshoots DNS, gpupdate refreshes Group Policy, and netstat displays network connections. Because boot configuration changes can affect whether Windows starts at all, technicians should understand the recovery context and use the correct command options rather than making unnecessary changes.

Question 86.

Which Windows command can be used to verify and repair protected operating-system files?

1. format
   2. sfc /scannow
   3. net use
   4. hostname

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The sfc /scannow command launches System File Checker and examines protected Windows system files. If corrupted or incorrect versions are found, Windows attempts to replace them with valid copies. This is useful when operating-system components behave unexpectedly because of damaged files. format prepares a storage volume and can destroy data, net use manages shared network resources, and hostname displays the local computer name. System File Checker is therefore an appropriate repair tool when Windows file corruption is suspected.

Question 87.

Which Windows utility should a technician use to review whether a device has a driver error indicated by a warning symbol?

1. Disk Cleanup
   2. Task Scheduler
   3. Device Manager
   4. File History

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Device Manager displays installed hardware and provides status information for devices and their drivers. A warning icon can indicate a driver problem, resource conflict, disabled device, or other hardware-related issue. From Device Manager, a technician can view device properties, update or roll back drivers, disable or uninstall a device, and review status codes. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Task Scheduler automates tasks, and File History protects user data. Device Manager is therefore the primary Windows utility for troubleshooting hardware and driver conditions.

Question 88.

A newly installed graphics driver causes display instability. Which Device Manager option may return the system to the previously installed driver?

1. Scan for hardware changes
   2. Disable device permanently
   3. Uninstall all Windows updates
   4. Roll Back Driver

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The Roll Back Driver option can restore the previously installed device driver when Windows retains that earlier version. This is useful when a newly installed driver introduces crashes, instability, or compatibility problems. Scanning for hardware changes redetects hardware but does not necessarily revert a driver. Disabling the device can stop it from functioning, while uninstalling all Windows updates is much broader than necessary. Rolling back the affected driver follows the troubleshooting principle of reversing the most recent relevant change with minimal disruption.

Question 89.

Which Windows feature creates snapshots of selected system settings that can later be used to reverse problematic configuration changes?

1. System Restore
   2. BitLocker
   3. Windows Firewall
   4. EFS

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

System Restore uses restore points to capture selected system configuration information such as registry settings, system files, and some driver-related changes. If a recent installation or configuration change causes problems, a technician can restore the system to an earlier restore point. System Restore is not designed as a complete user-file backup solution. BitLocker provides full-volume encryption, Windows Firewall filters network traffic, and EFS encrypts individual files and folders. System Restore is primarily intended to reverse certain unwanted system changes while preserving personal files in normal use.

Question 90.

Which command-line tool can repair the Windows component store and is often used before running System File Checker again?

1. ping
   2. DISM
   3. tasklist
   4. gpresult

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

DISM, or Deployment Image Servicing and Management, can repair the Windows image and component store. If System File Checker cannot repair corrupted files because its source components are damaged, running an appropriate DISM repair operation can restore the component store. The technician can then rerun sfc /scannow. ping tests connectivity, tasklist displays processes, and gpresult reports applied Group Policy. DISM is therefore a deeper Windows image servicing tool that complements System File Checker when operating-system corruption is suspected.

Question 91.

Which Windows command shows the routing table on a workstation?

1. hostname
   2. chkdsk
   3. route print
   4. sfc

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The route print command displays the Windows IP routing table, including network destinations, subnet masks, gateways, interfaces, and metrics. It can be useful when a computer has multiple network interfaces or when traffic appears to be using an unexpected gateway. hostname displays the computer name, chkdsk checks disks and file systems, and sfc validates protected system files. Reviewing the routing table can help technicians troubleshoot incorrect static routes, VPN-related routing issues, or unexpected network paths.

Question 92.

Which command can show the IP-to-MAC address mappings currently stored in a Windows computer’s ARP cache?

1. ipconfig /renew
   2. nslookup
   3. net use
   4. arp -a

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The arp -a command displays entries in the local Address Resolution Protocol cache, showing mappings between IPv4 addresses and physical MAC addresses. This can help troubleshoot local network communication or identify whether the workstation has learned the expected hardware address for another device on the same broadcast domain. ipconfig /renew obtains a new DHCP configuration, nslookup tests DNS resolution, and net use manages network shares. ARP information is particularly relevant to communication within the local subnet.

Question 93.

A user can access websites by IP address but not by domain name. Which command should the technician use to query the DNS server directly?

1. nslookup
   2. chkdsk
   3. taskkill
   4. net use

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

nslookup allows a technician to query DNS and determine whether a hostname resolves to the expected IP address. It can also reveal which DNS server is responding. If access by IP works but access by hostname fails, the network path is likely functioning and name resolution should be investigated. chkdsk checks disk integrity, taskkill terminates processes, and net use manages network resource connections. Using nslookup helps isolate DNS problems from general IP connectivity issues.

Question 94.

Which Windows command can display active TCP connections, listening ports, and associated process IDs when appropriate switches are used?

1. gpupdate
   2. netstat
   3. format
   4. sfc

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

netstat is a network diagnostic command that can display active connections, listening ports, protocol statistics, routing information, and process identifiers depending on the switches used. It is useful when determining whether a service is listening, checking established connections, or investigating unexpected network activity. gpupdate refreshes Group Policy, format prepares storage volumes, and sfc checks protected system files. Netstat is therefore an important Windows command-line utility for examining network sessions and local port usage.

Question 95.

Which type of malware records a user’s keystrokes in an attempt to capture sensitive information such as passwords?

1. Worm
   2. Adware
   3. Keylogger
   4. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A keylogger records keyboard input and may capture usernames, passwords, payment information, messages, and other sensitive data. Keyloggers can exist as malicious software or, less commonly, as unauthorized hardware devices placed between a keyboard and computer. Worms primarily focus on self-propagation, adware displays unwanted advertisements, and logic bombs activate when specific conditions are met. Endpoint security, least privilege, software updates, physical inspection, secure authentication methods, and multifactor authentication can help reduce the impact of keylogging attacks.

Question 96.

Which type of malicious behavior activates when a specific condition or date occurs?

1. Rootkit
   2. Worm
   3. Adware
   4. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A logic bomb is malicious code configured to execute when a specific condition is met, such as a particular date, account status, file change, or system event. It may remain dormant until the triggering condition occurs. A rootkit focuses on stealth and privileged persistence, a worm spreads automatically, and adware primarily displays advertisements. Logic bombs can be difficult to detect before activation because the malicious action may remain inactive for a long period. Change control, code review, access management, and monitoring can help reduce the risk.

Question 97.

Which security measure helps protect a user’s screen from being viewed by someone standing beside the computer?

1. Privacy filter
   2. Cable lock
   3. Mantrap
   4. Smart card reader

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A privacy filter narrows the viewing angle of a display so that information is difficult to see from the side. This helps protect sensitive information in public spaces, open offices, airplanes, healthcare environments, or other locations where shoulder surfing is a concern. A cable lock reduces physical theft risk, a mantrap controls entry to secure facilities, and a smart card reader supports authentication. Privacy filters provide a physical confidentiality control that complements screen locking and user awareness.

Question 98.

Which physical security control is best suited to keeping an equipment room under video observation?

1. Badge policy
   2. Surveillance camera
   3. Password complexity
   4. Software firewall

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Surveillance cameras provide visual monitoring and recording of physical areas such as server rooms, entrances, loading areas, and equipment storage locations. They can deter unauthorized behavior and provide evidence during security investigations. Badge policies control authorized access, while password complexity and software firewalls are logical rather than physical monitoring controls. Cameras should generally be combined with locks, access-control systems, visitor procedures, alarms, and appropriate retention policies for recordings. Physical security is strongest when multiple complementary controls are used together.

Question 99.

Which action is most appropriate before disposing of a company SSD containing confidential information when the drive will not be reused?

1. Move the files to another folder
   2. Empty the Recycle Bin
   3. Physically destroy the drive according to approved policy
   4. Change the drive letter

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

If a storage device containing sensitive information will not be reused, approved physical destruction can provide strong protection against future data recovery. SSDs require media-appropriate sanitization because traditional methods developed for magnetic disks may not always be effective in the same way. Deleting files, emptying the Recycle Bin, or changing a drive letter does not securely remove the underlying information. The organization should follow documented data-destruction procedures, regulatory requirements, and chain-of-custody controls where necessary. Proper disposal is an important part of protecting confidential information throughout its lifecycle.

Question 100.

A technician implements a fix and the system appears to work normally. Which action should be performed before the issue is considered fully resolved?

1. Immediately delete all troubleshooting notes
   2. Replace unrelated hardware
   3. Disable automatic updates
   4. Verify full system functionality and document the solution

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

After implementing a corrective action, the technician should verify that the original problem is resolved and that the system is functioning fully. This may include testing related applications, connectivity, services, peripherals, and user workflows. Preventive measures should also be considered where appropriate. The technician should then document the symptoms, cause, solution, and outcome. Documentation helps future troubleshooting, supports accountability, and creates useful organizational knowledge. Deleting notes or changing unrelated components can introduce new problems and does not follow a structured troubleshooting methodology.