View Full CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.

 

Question 101

Which component allows a desktop computer to connect to a wired Ethernet network?

1. Network interface card
2. Sound card
3. Capture card
4. TV tuner

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A network interface card, commonly called a NIC, provides the hardware interface required for network communication. A wired Ethernet NIC typically includes an RJ45 port and communicates with a network switch or other Ethernet device using a compatible cable. Many modern motherboards include an integrated Ethernet controller, but the function remains the same. A sound card handles audio, a capture card records or receives media signals, and a TV tuner receives television broadcasts. Therefore, the NIC is the component responsible for providing wired network connectivity.

Question 102

Which connector is commonly used for an internal SATA data connection between a motherboard and a storage drive?

1. RJ45
2. SATA
3. USB-A
4. Molex

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A SATA connector is commonly used to connect internal SATA storage devices such as traditional hard disk drives and SATA solid-state drives to a motherboard. SATA data cables carry information between the storage device and the system’s storage controller. RJ45 is associated with Ethernet networking, USB-A is a general-purpose external connector, and Molex connectors may provide power to certain older internal components. SATA storage devices normally use separate connections for data and power. Therefore, the SATA connector is appropriate for the internal storage-data connection described.

Question 103

A technician needs to install additional memory in a laptop. Which specification is most important when selecting a compatible module?

1. Printer language
2. Monitor refresh rate
3. Memory type and supported capacity
4. Ethernet cable category

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

When adding memory to a laptop, the technician must verify the supported memory type, module form factor, maximum capacity, and other platform-specific requirements. Laptop systems commonly use smaller memory modules than desktop systems, and different generations of memory are not generally interchangeable. Installing an incompatible module may result in failure to boot or reduced functionality. Printer language, monitor refresh rate, and Ethernet cable category do not determine memory compatibility. Checking the system or motherboard documentation before purchasing the module helps ensure the replacement memory is supported.

Question 104

Which display technology uses liquid crystals controlled by electrical signals to manipulate a backlight and produce an image?

1. LCD
2. OLED
3. CRT
4. Plasma

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

LCD, or Liquid Crystal Display, technology uses liquid crystal elements to control how light passes through the display. Modern LCD panels generally use an LED backlight, although LED describes the backlighting technology rather than the liquid-crystal display mechanism itself. OLED displays use self-emitting organic pixels, CRT displays use an electron beam and phosphor-coated screen, and plasma displays use electrically excited gas cells. Therefore, LCD is the technology described. Understanding display technologies helps technicians diagnose issues involving panels, backlighting, image quality, and compatibility.

Question 105

Which type of printer uses heat to fuse powdered toner onto paper?

1. Inkjet
2. Thermal
3. Laser
4. Dot matrix

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Laser printers use powdered toner and a fuser assembly to permanently bond the toner to the paper using heat and pressure. During the printing process, toner is transferred to the page and then passed through the heated fuser. Inkjet printers spray liquid ink through microscopic nozzles, dot-matrix printers use physical print pins and an ink ribbon, and thermal printers use heat-sensitive paper or thermal transfer mechanisms. Because the scenario specifically involves powdered toner being fused with heat, the correct printer type is a laser printer.

Question 106

Which laptop component converts electrical power from the AC adapter into voltages suitable for internal components?

1. Battery cell
2. Power regulation circuitry
3. Touchpad
4. Webcam

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Power regulation circuitry inside a laptop manages incoming electrical power and converts or regulates it into appropriate voltages for the motherboard, processor, memory, storage, and other components. The AC adapter supplies external power, while internal regulation circuits ensure components receive suitable electrical levels. The battery stores electrical energy for portable operation, while the touchpad and webcam provide user-input and imaging functions. Proper power regulation is essential because computer components require specific voltage levels. Faulty regulation can cause instability, charging problems, unexpected shutdowns, or failure to start.

Question 107

Which wireless standard operates primarily in the 2.4 GHz band and is commonly used for short-range personal-area connections between peripherals?

1. Bluetooth
2. NFC
3. Infrared
4. Cellular LTE

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology commonly used to connect peripherals such as keyboards, mice, headsets, speakers, and other personal devices. Bluetooth commonly operates in the 2.4 GHz radio band and is designed for relatively short-distance communication with low power requirements. NFC also provides short-range communication but operates differently and is generally intended for very close proximity. Infrared uses light rather than radio waves, while LTE is a cellular wide-area technology. Bluetooth is therefore the technology most appropriate for the described peripheral connections.

Question 108

Which mobile-device feature allows a smartphone to determine its position using signals from navigation satellites?

1. NFC
2. GPS
3. Bluetooth
4. Hotspot

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

GPS, or Global Positioning System, allows compatible devices to determine their location using signals received from navigation satellites. Smartphones can use GPS along with other positioning technologies to support navigation, mapping, location-based services, and tracking applications. NFC is primarily designed for very short-range communication, Bluetooth connects nearby devices, and a hotspot allows other devices to access a network connection through the phone. Therefore, GPS provides the satellite-based positioning capability described in the question.

Question 109

A user wants to connect a smartphone to a laptop and share the phone’s cellular internet connection. Which feature should the technician configure?

1. Screen mirroring
2. Mobile hotspot
3. Airplane mode
4. NFC payment

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A mobile hotspot allows a smartphone to share its cellular data connection with other devices. Depending on the device and operating system, the connection may be provided through Wi-Fi, USB tethering, or Bluetooth. The laptop can then use the smartphone’s cellular network for internet access. Screen mirroring is intended to display device content on another screen, airplane mode disables or restricts wireless radios, and NFC payment is used for contactless transactions. Therefore, mobile hotspot functionality is the appropriate feature for sharing cellular internet access.

Question 110

Which connector is reversible and commonly used for charging and data transfer on modern smartphones and other devices?

1. USB Type-C
2. VGA
3. PS/2
4. DVI

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

USB Type-C is a reversible connector commonly used for charging, data transfer, and other functions on modern computers, smartphones, tablets, and peripherals. Its symmetrical design means the plug can be inserted in either orientation. Depending on the device and implementation, USB Type-C can support different USB speeds and alternate modes such as video output. VGA and DVI are primarily associated with display connections, while PS/2 was commonly used for older keyboards and mice. USB Type-C is therefore the connector described.

Question 111

Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking?

1. SaaS
2. PaaS
3. IaaS
4. DaaS

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Infrastructure as a Service, or IaaS, provides virtualized infrastructure resources such as virtual machines, storage, networking, and related computing resources. Customers generally have more control over the operating systems and applications they deploy compared with higher-level cloud models. SaaS provides complete software applications to users, while PaaS provides a managed platform for application development and deployment. DaaS can refer to Desktop as a Service depending on context. IaaS is therefore the cloud service model that most directly provides virtualized computing infrastructure.

Question 112

Which virtualization component provides the layer that creates and manages virtual machines?

1. Hypervisor
2. Bootloader
3. File system
4. Device driver

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A hypervisor is the software or firmware layer responsible for creating, running, and managing virtual machines. It allocates physical resources such as CPU time, memory, storage, and networking to virtual machines while maintaining separation between them. Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the physical host hardware, while Type 2 hypervisors operate on top of a conventional operating system. A bootloader starts an operating system, a file system organizes stored data, and a device driver enables communication with hardware. Therefore, the hypervisor manages virtual machines.

Question 113

Which backup type copies all selected data each time the backup is performed?

1. Incremental
2. Differential
3. Full
4. Snapshot-only

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A full backup copies all selected files and data during every backup operation, regardless of whether those files have changed since the previous backup. Full backups are straightforward to restore because the required data is contained in a single backup set, although they generally require more storage space and time than incremental backups. Incremental backups copy changes since the previous backup, while differential backups copy changes since the last full backup. Therefore, a backup that copies all selected data each time is a full backup.

Question 114

Which troubleshooting step involves reproducing a reported problem before making changes to the system?

1. Identify the problem
2. Establish a theory
3. Test the theory
4. Document the solution

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Identifying the problem is an early troubleshooting step that includes gathering information and attempting to reproduce the reported symptoms. Reproducing the issue helps the technician understand its behavior, scope, and conditions under which it occurs. After the problem has been identified, the technician can establish a theory of probable cause, test that theory, implement an appropriate solution, and verify functionality. Documenting the solution occurs later. Reproducing a problem before changing the system helps prevent unnecessary modifications and provides a clearer basis for subsequent troubleshooting.

Question 115

A desktop computer repeatedly displays a blue screen after a new hardware driver is installed. What should the technician investigate first?

1. Printer paper size
2. Recently installed driver
3. Monitor brightness
4. Keyboard layout

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A recently installed driver is a strong suspect when system crashes begin immediately after a driver change. Drivers allow operating systems to communicate with hardware, and an incompatible, corrupted, or defective driver can cause system instability, including blue-screen errors. The technician should investigate the driver version, compatibility, installation status, and recent system changes. Printer paper size, monitor brightness, and keyboard layout are unrelated to a typical driver-induced system crash. Reviewing recent changes is an important troubleshooting practice because new changes often provide useful evidence about the root cause.

Question 116

Which Windows feature allows a user to return system files and settings to an earlier restore point without normally affecting personal documents?

1. System Restore
2. Disk Cleanup
3. Task Scheduler
4. Device Manager

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

System Restore allows Windows to revert certain system files, drivers, registry settings, and installed-program changes to an earlier restore point. It is commonly used when a recent software installation, driver update, or configuration change causes system instability. System Restore is not intended to function as a complete backup of personal documents. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Task Scheduler manages automated tasks, and Device Manager manages hardware devices and drivers. Therefore, System Restore is the Windows feature designed for reverting supported system changes to an earlier state.

Question 117

Which command-line utility is commonly used to test whether a remote host responds to ICMP echo requests?

1. nslookup
2. ping
3. arp
4. hostname

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The ping utility sends ICMP echo requests to a destination and reports whether responses are received. Technicians commonly use ping to test basic IP connectivity and determine whether a host is reachable over a network path. It can also provide response-time information that may help identify latency or packet-loss issues. nslookup is primarily used for DNS queries, arp displays or manages address-resolution information, and hostname displays or identifies the local system name. Therefore, ping is the appropriate command for testing ICMP reachability.

Question 118

Which protocol is commonly used by email clients to retrieve messages while keeping the messages synchronized on the mail server?

1. POP3
2. FTP
3. IMAP
4. SMTP

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

IMAP, or Internet Message Access Protocol, allows email clients to access and synchronize messages that remain stored on a mail server. This is particularly useful when users access the same mailbox from multiple computers, phones, or other devices because message status and folder organization can remain synchronized. POP3 generally focuses on downloading messages to a client, while SMTP is primarily used for sending email. FTP is a file-transfer protocol rather than an email retrieval protocol. Therefore, IMAP is the appropriate choice for synchronized server-based email access.

Question 119

Which protocol is primarily responsible for sending email from an email client or server to another mail server?

1. SMTP
2. IMAP
3. DNS
4. SNMP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, or SMTP, is primarily used to send email messages between email clients and mail servers or between mail servers. It handles the transmission of outgoing email and is commonly configured with authentication and encryption options depending on the environment. IMAP is used primarily for retrieving and synchronizing mailbox contents, DNS resolves names and other records, and SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices. Therefore, SMTP is the protocol most directly associated with transmitting outgoing email.

Question 120

Which practice best protects a technician from damaging sensitive electronic components through electrostatic discharge?

1. Working on carpet while wearing wool clothing
2. Handling components only by their exposed contacts
3. Using an antistatic wrist strap and suitable ESD procedures
4. Increasing the computer’s power supply voltage

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

An antistatic wrist strap, when properly connected to an appropriate grounding point and used with other ESD precautions, helps keep the technician and equipment at a similar electrical potential. This reduces the likelihood of a damaging electrostatic discharge reaching sensitive components. Technicians should also work on suitable ESD-safe surfaces, handle components by appropriate edges, and store them in antistatic packaging. Carpets and static-generating clothing can increase risk, while touching exposed contacts or increasing power-supply voltage does not provide ESD protection. Therefore, proper ESD procedures are essential.