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Question 181

Which Windows command can display the current IP configuration of a computer?

1. route
2. hostname
3. ipconfig
4. net use

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

The ipconfig command displays basic TCP/IP configuration information for a Windows computer. It can show values such as the assigned IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Additional options can provide more detailed information or perform tasks such as releasing and renewing DHCP configurations. Technicians commonly use this command as an initial step when troubleshooting connectivity problems. If the computer has an unexpected address or missing gateway, the technician can investigate DHCP, network adapter configuration, cabling, wireless connectivity, or other related causes.

Question 182

A Windows computer receives an IP address beginning with 169.254. What is the most likely cause?

1. Successful DNS registration
2. Failure to obtain an address from DHCP
3. Incorrect monitor configuration
4. Excessive disk fragmentation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A Windows computer that automatically receives a 169.254.x.x address is generally using an APIPA address because it could not obtain an appropriate address from a DHCP server. The technician should check the network connection, DHCP availability, network adapter status, and connectivity to the local network. If other computers are also affected, the issue may involve the DHCP server or network infrastructure. If only one computer is affected, the technician should investigate its adapter, configuration, and physical or wireless connection before making broader network changes.

Question 183

Which Windows command can clear cached DNS records on a workstation?

1. ipconfig /flushdns
2. ipconfig /release
3. ipconfig /renew
4. ipconfig /displaydns

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The ipconfig /flushdns command clears the local DNS resolver cache on a Windows computer. This can help when outdated or incorrect cached records are causing name-resolution problems. After flushing the cache, the computer can request current DNS information when applications attempt to resolve domain names again. The command does not repair an unavailable DNS server or incorrect DNS configuration by itself. Technicians should consider the scope of the problem and test name resolution afterward to determine whether the cache was actually responsible for the issue.

Question 184

Which Windows command can display the DNS records currently stored in the local resolver cache?

1. netstat
2. tracert
3. ipconfig /displaydns
4. ping

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

The ipconfig /displaydns command displays the contents of the local DNS resolver cache. This information can help technicians determine whether a hostname has recently been resolved and what cached information is available. It can be useful when investigating unexpected or outdated name-resolution behavior. If cached information appears incorrect, the technician may clear it with the appropriate command and test again. DNS troubleshooting should also include checking configured DNS servers and determining whether the problem affects one computer, multiple devices, or only a particular domain.

Question 185

Which Windows command traces the path packets take toward a destination host?

1. tracert
2. hostname
3. tasklist
4. format

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The tracert command identifies the network hops between a Windows computer and a destination host. It can help technicians determine where communication may be failing or experiencing unusual delays. Each responding hop generally represents a router or other network device along the path. Some devices may not respond to traceroute probes, so a timeout does not automatically prove that the device is malfunctioning. Technicians should compare results with other tests, such as ping and DNS resolution, before determining where the actual connectivity problem exists.

Question 186

A user cannot print because Windows has several documents stuck in the print queue. Which service should the technician check?

1. Windows Search
2. Print Spooler
3. Windows Time
4. Remote Registry

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The Print Spooler service manages print jobs sent to printers in Windows. If print jobs become stuck or printing stops unexpectedly, the technician should verify that the service is running correctly. Depending on the situation, clearing a corrupted print queue and restarting the Print Spooler may resolve the problem. The technician should also check printer connectivity, drivers, and printer status if the issue continues. Care should be taken when clearing queued jobs because doing so may remove documents that users still expect to print.

Question 187

Which Windows tool allows a technician to review warnings, errors, and informational events generated by the operating system?

1. Event Viewer
2. Disk Cleanup
3. File Explorer
4. Paint

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Event Viewer provides access to Windows logs containing information about system, application, security, and other events. Technicians can use these logs to investigate crashes, service failures, driver problems, authentication issues, and other system events. Event records commonly include timestamps and additional information that can help correlate failures with recent changes. Technicians should focus on events relevant to the reported symptoms rather than treating every warning as a critical problem. Logs are most useful when interpreted alongside user reports and other troubleshooting evidence.

Question 188

Which Windows utility can schedule a program or script to run automatically at a specified time or event?

1. System Information
2. Task Scheduler
3. Device Manager
4. Credential Manager

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Task Scheduler allows Windows to automatically execute programs, scripts, and tasks based on defined triggers. Triggers can include a specific time, system startup, user logon, or other supported events. Technicians may use it to troubleshoot automated maintenance tasks or verify that scheduled processes are configured correctly. Because scheduled tasks can execute with significant privileges, technicians should review unfamiliar tasks carefully. Unnecessary or suspicious tasks should be investigated rather than simply deleted, particularly on systems that may have been compromised.

Question 189

A technician needs to identify which Windows process is consuming excessive memory. Which built-in tool should be used first?

1. Task Manager
2. Disk Management
3. Registry Editor
4. Character Map

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Task Manager provides a quick way to view running applications and processes along with resource usage such as CPU, memory, disk, and network activity. If a computer is experiencing slow performance, a technician can sort processes by memory usage to identify applications consuming unusually large amounts of RAM. High memory usage is not automatically evidence of a fault because legitimate applications may require substantial resources. The technician should compare usage with the user’s workload and investigate applications that behave abnormally or consume resources continuously.

Question 190

Which Windows tool can help identify hardware devices that are missing drivers or experiencing device-related errors?

1. Disk Cleanup
2. Device Manager
3. Task Scheduler
4. Performance Monitor

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Device Manager displays installed hardware devices and provides information about their driver and operational status. Warning symbols can indicate problems such as missing drivers, disabled devices, or configuration errors. Technicians can use the utility to review device properties, update drivers, disable devices, or remove hardware entries when appropriate. Drivers should be obtained from trusted sources and matched to the correct hardware and operating system. A driver change should be documented, particularly when it is performed to resolve a recurring hardware or stability problem.

Question 191

Which Windows recovery feature can restore system settings to an earlier restore point without normally affecting personal documents?

1. Windows Sandbox
2. System Restore
3. Disk Cleanup
4. Storage Spaces

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

System Restore can return supported Windows system settings, drivers, and configuration information to an earlier restore point. It is useful when a recent software installation, driver change, or configuration modification causes system problems. System Restore is different from a full backup because it is not intended to provide complete protection for personal data. Restore points may also be unavailable or too old to resolve a particular issue. Technicians should explain the expected effect before using the feature and consider recent changes when selecting a restore point.

Question 192

A Windows user reports that an application worked before an update but now crashes immediately after launching. What should the technician investigate first?

1. Application and update compatibility
2. Printer paper size
3. Keyboard layout
4. Monitor brightness

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

If an application begins crashing immediately after an update, compatibility between the application and the updated component should be investigated. The technician can review application updates, Windows updates, error messages, vendor documentation, and recently changed drivers or dependencies. If appropriate, applying a newer application version or rolling back a problematic update may resolve the issue. Changes should be made according to organizational procedures, and important data should be protected first. The technician should avoid immediately reinstalling Windows because the evidence points toward a more specific software change.

Question 193

Which security measure protects stored data by converting it into an unreadable form without the appropriate key or authentication?

1. Encryption
2. Defragmentation
3. Compression
4. Indexing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Encryption transforms readable information into protected ciphertext that cannot normally be understood without the appropriate key or authentication mechanism. It helps protect data if a device is lost, stolen, or accessed without authorization. Windows can use technologies such as BitLocker to encrypt supported storage devices. Encryption does not eliminate the need for strong passwords, access controls, and backups. Technicians should also understand recovery-key requirements because losing the required recovery information can make legitimate data recovery difficult.

Question 194

Which authentication factor is represented by a fingerprint?

1. Something you know
2. Something you have
3. Something you are
4. Somewhere you are

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A fingerprint is an example of the “something you are” authentication factor because it is a biometric characteristic of the individual. Other biometric examples include facial recognition and certain forms of iris recognition. Authentication can become stronger when multiple different factor categories are combined, such as a password with a biometric factor. Technicians should understand that biometric systems still depend on secure implementation and appropriate fallback methods. Organizations should establish suitable authentication policies based on the sensitivity of the systems and information being protected.

Question 195

A user receives an email claiming to be from the IT department and requesting their password through a provided link. What type of attack is this most likely to be?

1. Phishing
2. Shoulder surfing
3. Tailgating
4. Dumpster diving

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Phishing is a social-engineering technique in which an attacker uses fraudulent messages to persuade a victim to reveal information, open malicious content, or perform an unsafe action. A request for a password through an unexpected link is a common warning sign. Technicians should encourage users to verify requests through trusted communication channels rather than using links or contact information contained in suspicious messages. Security awareness training should cover sender addresses, unexpected requests, urgent language, suspicious links, and methods for reporting suspected phishing attempts.

Question 196

Which physical security control uses a barrier and authentication point to control entry into a restricted area?

1. Mantrap
2. Access point
3. Proxy server
4. Firewall

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A mantrap is a physical security arrangement consisting of two or more interlocking doors designed to control entry into a restricted area. Typically, one door must close before another can open, reducing the opportunity for unauthorized individuals to follow an authorized person through the entrance. Mantraps may be combined with badges, biometric authentication, security personnel, or other controls. They are particularly useful in locations where physical access to sensitive equipment or information must be tightly controlled.

Question 197

Which backup method stores changes made since the last full backup?

1. Incremental
2. Differential
3. Full
4. Mirror-only

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A differential backup copies data that has changed since the most recent full backup. As additional differential backups are created, each one generally includes changes made since that original full backup. This differs from an incremental backup, which normally stores changes since the most recent backup of any type. During restoration, a full backup and the latest differential backup are typically required. Technicians should understand the organization’s backup schedule before restoring data because selecting the wrong backup set can produce incomplete or outdated recovery results.

Question 198

Which backup method stores changes made since the most recent backup of any type?

1. Full
2. Differential
3. Incremental
4. Archive

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

An incremental backup stores data that has changed since the most recent backup, whether that previous backup was full or incremental. This approach can reduce backup time and storage requirements because each incremental set contains only recent changes. However, restoration may require the original full backup and multiple subsequent incremental backups. Technicians should verify that all required backup sets are available and usable before relying on this strategy. Backup testing is important because a backup that cannot be successfully restored does not provide dependable recovery.

Question 199

Which action should a technician take before replacing a suspected failing storage drive that contains important user data?

1. Disable all backups
2. Verify data backup or recovery options
3. Delete temporary files
4. Change the user’s password

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Before replacing a storage drive containing important data, the technician should verify that required information is backed up or otherwise recoverable. A failing drive can deteriorate further during troubleshooting or replacement, so unnecessary operations should be minimized. The technician should identify important files, confirm the availability and integrity of backups, and follow organizational procedures for data recovery. If no valid backup exists, appropriate recovery methods may need to be considered before replacement. Protecting user data should remain a priority throughout hardware troubleshooting.

Question 200

A technician is troubleshooting a computer remotely and needs to install software that requires administrator privileges. What should the technician do?

1. Obtain appropriate authorization and use approved elevated access
2. Ask the user to provide their personal password
3. Disable endpoint security permanently
4. Create an unknown administrator account

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

When administrative privileges are required during remote support, the technician should obtain appropriate authorization and use an approved method for elevated access. Organizations may use separate administrative credentials, privileged-access systems, or controlled elevation mechanisms. Users should not be asked to disclose personal passwords unnecessarily, and security software should not be permanently disabled to simplify installation. The technician should document the software installation and any configuration changes according to support procedures. Using controlled administrative access reduces the risk of unauthorized system modifications and improves accountability.