View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 181.

Which server component converts incoming AC power into DC voltages used by internal hardware?

1. Power supply unit
2. Voltage regulator module
3. Battery backup unit
4. Power distribution module

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A power supply unit, or PSU, converts electrical power from the facility’s AC supply into the DC voltages required by server components. Different internal components may require different voltage levels, so the PSU provides regulated outputs suitable for processors, memory, storage devices, and expansion hardware. Enterprise servers frequently use redundant PSUs so that one unit can fail without immediately shutting down the system. Administrators should verify wattage capacity, connector compatibility, efficiency ratings, and redundancy requirements when replacing a server PSU. A failed or overloaded PSU can produce symptoms such as unexpected shutdowns, hardware instability, or repeated boot failures.

Question 182.

What does a server’s hot-plug capability allow an administrator to do?

1. Change the operating system kernel without rebooting
2. Replace supported hardware while the system remains operational
3. Upgrade every internal component simultaneously
4. Modify processor architecture during runtime

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Hot-plug capability allows certain supported hardware components to be inserted or removed while the server continues operating. Common examples include hot-plug drives and, on some platforms, redundant power supplies or cooling modules. The capability depends on both the hardware design and operating-system support. Administrators should verify that a component is specifically rated for hot-plug operation before removing it. Using a hot-plug feature incorrectly can still result in data loss or hardware damage. In enterprise environments, hot-plug technology can reduce downtime because a failed supported component may be replaced without taking the entire server offline.

Question 183.

Which memory characteristic allows a server to detect and correct certain single-bit errors?

1. Memory interleaving
2. ECC
3. Dual-channel operation
4. Memory overclocking

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Error-Correcting Code memory, commonly called ECC memory, can detect and correct certain types of memory errors. This capability is valuable in servers because undetected memory corruption can affect applications, operating-system processes, and stored results. ECC implementations commonly correct single-bit errors and detect certain multi-bit conditions, although the exact capabilities depend on the memory architecture. Server platforms often use ECC because reliability is more important than maximizing consumer-oriented memory performance. Administrators should ensure that the memory modules are compatible with the server’s motherboard and processor platform because not every system supports every ECC configuration.

Question 184.

Which server feature provides duplicate power paths to reduce the effect of a failed power supply?

1. Single-circuit wiring
2. Manual transfer switching
3. Power redundancy
4. Extension-cord distribution

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Power redundancy uses multiple power supplies or independent power paths so that the failure of one component does not necessarily shut down the server. Enterprise servers may contain two or more hot-swappable PSUs connected to separate power sources. For stronger resilience, those sources can be connected to different power distribution units or electrical circuits. Administrators should also verify that redundant supplies are actually connected to independent upstream infrastructure; two supplies connected to the same failed circuit do not provide complete power-path independence. Redundancy therefore requires consideration of the entire electrical path, not merely the number of installed PSUs.

Question 185.

Which cooling approach uses a liquid medium to remove heat from high-power server components?

1. Direct liquid cooling
2. Passive metal shielding
3. Airflow balancing
4. Thermal insulation

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Direct liquid cooling uses a liquid coolant to transfer heat away from components such as processors or other high-density hardware. Liquid can provide efficient heat transfer and may be useful in environments where conventional air cooling becomes difficult to scale. Depending on the design, coolant may circulate through cold plates or other specialized components positioned near heat-producing devices. Administrators must consider pumps, coolant quality, leak detection, maintenance requirements, and facility infrastructure when using liquid cooling. The goal is not simply to lower temperature but to maintain reliable operating conditions under sustained workload while managing the additional infrastructure introduced by liquid-based systems.

Question 186.

Which rack measurement describes the vertical height of equipment using standardized increments?

1. Rack depth
2. Rack width
3. Rack unit
4. Mounting clearance

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A rack unit, abbreviated U, is a standardized measurement used to describe the vertical height of equipment installed in a server rack. One rack unit equals 1.75 inches of vertical space. Server chassis are commonly described as 1U, 2U, 4U, and similar dimensions. Rack-unit measurements help administrators plan equipment placement and determine how much vertical capacity remains in a cabinet. Rack depth and width describe different physical dimensions and are also important when verifying hardware compatibility. Before installing a server, administrators should confirm that its chassis dimensions fit the available rack space and mounting hardware.

Question 187.

What is the purpose of a server asset tag?

1. Identifying equipment for inventory management
2. Measuring processor temperature
3. Controlling network packet priority
4. Encrypting configuration backups

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

An asset tag provides a unique identifier that helps an organization track physical equipment throughout its lifecycle. Administrators can associate an asset tag with information such as the server model, location, assigned department, purchase details, maintenance history, and ownership records. Asset tracking supports inventory accuracy and simplifies maintenance or replacement activities. Tags may be represented by printed labels, barcodes, QR codes, or other identification methods. The asset tag itself does not perform technical monitoring or security functions. Its main value is administrative: connecting a physical server to accurate records within an inventory or configuration-management system.

Question 188.

Which maintenance activity is most appropriate before replacing a production server component?

1. Disable all monitoring permanently
2. Ignore the vendor service documentation
3. Verify the replacement part’s compatibility
4. Remove unrelated hardware first

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Before replacing a production component, administrators should verify that the replacement part is compatible with the server model, firmware, operating environment, and existing hardware configuration. Compatibility checks can prevent issues such as unsupported memory modules, incorrect storage controllers, unsuitable power supplies, or incompatible expansion cards. Vendor documentation and hardware compatibility lists are useful references during this process. Administrators should also follow the organization’s maintenance and change procedures before performing the replacement. Installing a physically fitting component does not automatically mean it is operationally supported, so compatibility should be confirmed before taking action on a production system.

Question 189.

Which monitoring method periodically requests information from a managed network device?

1. SNMP polling
2. Event-driven alerting
3. Log archival
4. Packet capture

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

SNMP polling involves a monitoring system periodically requesting information from a managed device. The monitoring platform can collect values such as interface statistics, hardware conditions, utilization measurements, or other exposed management data. Polling intervals can be configured according to operational requirements. SNMP traps provide a different mechanism because the managed device sends an event notification when a configured condition occurs. Administrators often use both polling and event notifications to gain continuous visibility into infrastructure. Polling is particularly useful for building historical measurements and performance trends because the monitoring system repeatedly gathers standardized data from the monitored device.

Question 190.

What does an SNMP trap provide to a monitoring platform?

1. A complete operating-system image
2. A scheduled storage snapshot
3. An unsolicited event notification
4. A replacement network route

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

An SNMP trap is an event notification sent from a managed device to a monitoring system without requiring the monitoring system to request that specific event at that moment. Devices can generate traps for conditions such as interface failures, hardware alerts, or threshold-related events. This allows administrators to receive notifications when something important occurs rather than waiting for the next polling interval. Traps and polling can complement each other: traps provide event-driven information, while polling supplies recurring measurements and historical data. Proper monitoring design should also account for notification reliability and the possibility that individual event messages may be lost.

Question 191.

Which log-management practice makes troubleshooting across multiple servers easier?

1. Centralized log collection
2. Independent log deletion
3. Local-only event storage
4. Manual screen inspection

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Centralized log collection gathers events from multiple servers into a common logging platform. This allows administrators to search and correlate events across systems rather than examining each server independently. Centralized logging can be particularly useful when diagnosing distributed applications, authentication problems, network failures, or security incidents involving several machines. A centralized platform may also provide retention policies, indexing, alerting, and access controls. Administrators should ensure that log forwarding is properly configured and that timestamps are consistent across systems. Centralization does not eliminate the need for local logs, which may still be valuable during outages or communication failures.

Question 192.

Which time-synchronization service helps ensure consistent timestamps across servers?

1. LDAP
2. NTP
3. SMTP
4. SMB

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Network Time Protocol, or NTP, synchronizes system clocks with reliable time sources across a network. Consistent time is important for server administration because logs, authentication events, certificates, scheduled tasks, and distributed applications often depend on accurate timestamps. Without synchronization, events occurring on different systems may appear out of order, making troubleshooting and security investigations more difficult. Organizations can configure internal time servers that obtain time from trusted upstream sources. Administrators should monitor synchronization status because excessive clock drift can indicate configuration problems, unreachable time sources, or hardware-related issues.

Question 193.

What is the primary role of a runbook during server operations?

1. Providing documented operational procedures
2. Recording employee attendance
3. Assigning physical rack dimensions
4. Calculating storage-media capacity

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A runbook documents repeatable procedures for operating, maintaining, or troubleshooting a system. It may contain steps for restarting services, responding to common alerts, performing backups, recovering applications, or escalating incidents. Runbooks help reduce dependence on individual administrators because important procedures are recorded in a consistent format. They should be reviewed and updated when infrastructure changes. A useful runbook normally includes prerequisites, required permissions, ordered actions, validation steps, and rollback or escalation guidance where appropriate. Runbooks are especially valuable during incidents because administrators can follow an established process rather than improvising every action under pressure.

Question 194.

What does a maintenance window define?

1. The maximum rack temperature
2. A scheduled period for planned service work
3. The number of users permitted online
4. The minimum disk-transfer rate

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A maintenance window is a planned period during which administrators are authorized to perform changes, updates, repairs, or other activities that may affect service availability. Scheduling work within an approved window allows organizations to communicate potential impact and coordinate technical resources. Maintenance windows are commonly associated with operating-system updates, firmware upgrades, hardware replacement, and infrastructure changes. The exact timing depends on business requirements and service-level commitments. Administrators should still validate backups, dependencies, rollback procedures, and monitoring before beginning significant maintenance because an approved window does not eliminate the possibility of unexpected technical problems.

Question 195.

Which document records approved modifications made to a server environment?

1. Change record
2. Hardware barcode
3. Cooling specification
4. Network cable label

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A change record documents an approved modification to an IT environment. It may describe what will change, why the change is required, which systems are affected, when the work will occur, who is responsible, and how success or rollback will be verified. Change records support accountability and provide useful historical information when troubleshooting later problems. They also help organizations coordinate dependencies and communicate planned service impacts. Examples include operating-system upgrades, firewall-rule changes, storage expansion, firmware updates, and application configuration changes. Maintaining accurate change records is especially useful when multiple administrators manage the same production infrastructure.

Question 196.

What does a service-level agreement commonly define?

1. Physical processor architecture
2. Expected service commitments
3. File-system directory structure
4. Server rack screw dimensions

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A Service-Level Agreement, or SLA, defines agreed service expectations between a provider and a customer or between organizational service teams. Depending on the arrangement, an SLA may address availability targets, response times, resolution expectations, support coverage, or other measurable commitments. SLAs provide a reference for evaluating whether a service is being delivered according to established terms. They do not directly configure the server itself. Administrators should understand the relevant SLA when planning maintenance, redundancy, monitoring, and incident response because infrastructure decisions may need to support the availability or response commitments associated with a service.

Question 197.

Which server-management practice helps ensure administrators can reproduce a known configuration?

1. Configuration documentation
2. Random manual adjustments
3. Unrecorded emergency edits
4. Unrestricted privilege sharing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Configuration documentation records important settings and relationships within a server environment. It can include operating-system versions, installed services, network parameters, storage layouts, application settings, and other relevant information. Accurate documentation makes it easier to rebuild or troubleshoot a server when hardware fails or configuration changes cause problems. Documentation should be updated as approved changes are introduced; otherwise, it can become misleading. Automation and configuration-management tools can further improve consistency by representing desired configurations in repeatable forms. Together, documentation and controlled configuration practices reduce uncertainty during maintenance and recovery activities.

Question 198.

Which metric indicates the amount of processor time a virtual machine is waiting for physical CPU access?

1. CPU utilization
2. CPU steal time
3. Memory allocation
4. Disk throughput

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

CPU steal time represents processor time that a virtual machine is ready to execute but cannot obtain because the underlying hypervisor is allocating physical CPU resources elsewhere. Elevated steal time can indicate contention on an overcommitted virtualization host. It is different from ordinary guest CPU utilization because the workload may be ready to run even though it is not receiving processor time. Administrators investigating virtual-machine performance should examine host-level contention alongside guest metrics. High steal time can result from excessive workload density, inappropriate virtual CPU allocations, or competing workloads on the same physical host.

Question 199.

Which storage technique creates a duplicate copy of data on another system or location?

1. Replication
2. Compression
3. Deduplication
4. Defragmentation

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Replication copies data from one storage system or location to another so that a separate copy is maintained. Depending on the technology, replication may occur synchronously or asynchronously. Synchronous replication generally aims to keep copies closely aligned, while asynchronous replication allows some delay between the source and destination. Replication can support availability and disaster-recovery objectives, but it is not automatically equivalent to a backup. If unwanted changes or deletions are replicated immediately, both copies can be affected. Administrators should therefore understand the recovery requirements and combine replication with appropriate backup and retention strategies.

Question 200.

What is the purpose of a service dependency map?

1. Showing relationships between services and supporting components
2. Listing only unused server ports
3. Recording keyboard replacement dates
4. Measuring cabinet airflow velocity

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A service dependency map shows how applications, services, servers, databases, network components, and other infrastructure elements depend on one another. Understanding these relationships helps administrators evaluate the potential impact of maintenance, failures, or configuration changes. For example, an application may depend on a database server, authentication service, DNS infrastructure, and storage platform. If one dependency becomes unavailable, several higher-level services may also be affected. Dependency mapping is therefore useful for troubleshooting, change planning, capacity analysis, and recovery preparation. Keeping the map updated is important because infrastructure relationships can change as applications and server environments evolve.