View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 61

Which RAID level uses striping without any parity or mirroring and therefore provides no fault tolerance?

1. RAID 0
2. RAID 1
3. RAID 5
4. RAID 6

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

RAID 0 distributes data across multiple drives using striping, which can improve read and write performance because operations can occur across several devices simultaneously. However, RAID 0 provides no redundancy. If one member drive fails, the data associated with the entire array can become inaccessible because portions of files are distributed across the failed device. RAID 1 uses mirroring, RAID 5 combines striping with distributed parity, and RAID 6 uses dual parity. RAID 0 may be appropriate when performance is more important than fault tolerance and the data can be recreated from another source, but it should not be treated as a backup mechanism.

Question 62

Which RAID level can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures by using dual distributed parity?

1. RAID 3
2. RAID 4
3. RAID 5
4. RAID 6

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

RAID 6 uses block-level striping with two independent parity calculations distributed across the member drives. Because two parity sets are maintained, the array can generally tolerate the failure of any two drives without losing access to the stored data. RAID 5 provides only one parity set and normally tolerates one drive failure. RAID 3 and RAID 4 are older RAID approaches that are rarely selected for modern enterprise deployments. RAID 6 can be useful for large-capacity arrays where rebuild periods may be lengthy and the probability of another drive failure during rebuilding is a concern. The trade-off includes additional parity overhead and write complexity.

Question 63

Which storage method duplicates identical data onto two separate physical drives for redundancy?

1. Striping
2. Mirroring
3. Parity
4. Concatenation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Mirroring maintains duplicate copies of data on separate storage devices. RAID 1 is the most familiar implementation of disk mirroring, where one drive contains a copy of the data stored on another. If one mirrored drive fails, the surviving drive can continue providing access to the information. Striping distributes data across multiple drives without necessarily providing redundancy, while parity stores calculated information that can help reconstruct missing data. Concatenation combines storage capacity without inherently duplicating information. Mirroring is therefore useful when availability and straightforward redundancy are more important than maximizing usable capacity.

Question 64

Which component protects a server’s processor from excessive heat by transferring thermal energy toward a cooling assembly?

1. Heat spreader
2. Storage controller
3. Expansion bracket
4. Memory riser

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A heat spreader or heatsink interface transfers thermal energy away from the processor toward a larger cooling structure where the heat can be dissipated. Proper thermal contact is essential because processors generate substantial heat during operation. Thermal interface material may be used between the processor and heatsink to improve heat transfer by filling microscopic gaps between surfaces. A storage controller manages storage devices, an expansion bracket supports hardware installation, and a memory riser provides additional memory connectivity in supported server designs. Cooling components must be installed correctly because poor thermal contact or inadequate airflow can cause excessive temperatures, performance throttling, or system shutdown.

Question 65

Which server cooling component actively moves air through the chassis to remove heat from internal components?

1. Heat pipe
2. Thermal compound
3. Cooling fan
4. Copper spreader

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A cooling fan actively moves air through the server chassis, helping transport heat away from processors, memory, storage devices, and other components. Enterprise servers often use multiple fans arranged in carefully designed airflow paths, and some systems can tolerate the failure of one fan through redundant cooling. A heat pipe transfers heat through a sealed thermal structure but does not itself move air. Thermal compound improves heat transfer between a component and cooling surface, while a copper spreader distributes thermal energy. Fan failures can produce temperature warnings, reduced performance, or automatic shutdowns, so fan health should be monitored in production servers.

Question 66

A server has multiple processors installed. Which characteristic determines whether the motherboard can physically accommodate them?

1. DIMM density
2. Socket count
3. Fan diameter
4. Rack height

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Socket count indicates how many physical processor sockets are available on the motherboard. A single-socket motherboard generally supports one processor package, while a dual-socket platform can accommodate two compatible processors. Larger enterprise systems may support additional sockets depending on the platform architecture. DIMM density concerns memory capacity and organization, fan diameter relates to cooling hardware, and rack height describes the physical size of rack-mounted equipment. Administrators should also verify processor generation, chipset compatibility, firmware support, thermal requirements, and supported memory configurations because having multiple sockets alone does not guarantee that arbitrary processors can be installed together.

Question 67

Which server memory characteristic allows a system to detect and correct certain data corruption events?

1. ECC capability
2. Burst frequency
3. Channel interleaving
4. Clock multiplier

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

ECC capability allows memory hardware to detect and correct certain types of data errors. This is especially valuable in servers because memory corruption can lead to application failures, operating-system crashes, or incorrect results. ECC mechanisms commonly provide correction for certain single-bit errors and detection capabilities for additional error patterns, depending on the implementation. Channel interleaving can improve memory performance by distributing accesses across memory channels, while clock-related characteristics influence memory speed. The presence of ECC support must be considered across the processor, motherboard, and memory modules because the platform must support the selected ECC implementation for it to function as intended.

Question 68

Which server storage technology uses a dedicated optical laser to read and write data on removable discs?

1. Magnetic tape
2. NVMe flash
3. Optical storage
4. SAS disk

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Optical storage uses laser technology to read and, with supported media, write information on removable discs. Examples include CD, DVD, and Blu-ray formats. Magnetic tape stores information magnetically and is commonly used for archival or backup purposes. NVMe flash storage uses solid-state memory and communicates through the NVMe protocol, while SAS disks are generally magnetic or solid-state devices using the SAS interface. Optical media can be useful for specific archival or distribution scenarios, although modern server environments more commonly rely on network, disk, object, or tape-based storage for large-scale operational and backup requirements.

Question 69

Which backup medium is commonly used for long-term archival because it offers high capacity and relatively low cost per stored unit?

1. Magnetic tape
2. RAM module
3. CPU cache
4. Optical sensor

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Magnetic tape is widely used for long-term backup and archival because it can provide high storage capacity at a relatively low cost per unit of stored data. Tape cartridges can also be stored offline, which can provide protection against certain network-based attacks and operational incidents. RAM is volatile memory intended for active processing rather than long-term storage, while CPU cache is an even faster but much smaller temporary storage resource. An optical sensor is not a storage medium. Tape-based environments require appropriate drive hardware, media management, retention procedures, labeling, environmental controls, and periodic restoration testing.

Question 70

Which network device forwards traffic between different IP networks using routing information?

1. Layer 2 bridge
2. Ethernet hub
3. Router
4. Patch panel

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A router forwards packets between different IP networks based on routing information. It examines destination addressing and determines an appropriate next hop or interface for the traffic. Routers may use static routes, dynamic routing protocols, or a combination of both. An Ethernet hub simply repeats signals to connected ports, while a Layer 2 bridge forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A patch panel provides a physical cable termination and organization point rather than making forwarding decisions. Understanding the distinction between switching and routing is important when troubleshooting connectivity across VLANs, subnets, and geographically separated network segments.

Question 71

Which Ethernet device forwards frames based primarily on destination MAC addresses?

1. Router
2. Switch
3. Modem
4. Firewall proxy

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A network switch forwards Ethernet frames using MAC address information. It learns which MAC addresses are associated with specific ports and uses that information to send traffic toward the appropriate destination rather than broadcasting every frame to all ports. A router primarily makes forwarding decisions using network-layer addresses such as IP addresses. A modem provides connectivity through a particular access technology, while a firewall proxy performs security or application-level functions rather than acting as a basic Layer 2 switching device. Switches are fundamental components of server networking and may also support VLANs, link aggregation, monitoring, and other enterprise features.

Question 72

Which protocol allows administrators to monitor and collect status information from network-connected server hardware?

1. SNMP
2. SMTP
3. SIP
4. SFTP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is commonly used to monitor and manage network-connected devices and systems. Monitoring platforms can query supported devices for information such as interface status, hardware conditions, resource statistics, and other management data. SMTP is an email transport protocol, SIP is associated with real-time communication sessions, and SFTP provides secure file transfer through SSH. SNMP implementations should be configured carefully because monitoring protocols can expose sensitive management information if poorly secured. Modern deployments should consider secure versions and appropriate authentication and access restrictions when collecting server or infrastructure monitoring data.

Question 73

A server’s network adapter is connected but cannot communicate beyond its local subnet. Which configuration should be checked first?

1. Default gateway
2. CPU multiplier
3. RAID stripe size
4. Fan speed profile

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The default gateway provides the next-hop route used when a system needs to communicate with destinations outside its local subnet. If the IP address and subnet configuration are correct but the gateway is missing or incorrect, the server may communicate with local systems while failing to reach remote networks. CPU multiplier settings, RAID stripe size, and fan profiles do not control IP routing. Troubleshooting should also verify DNS configuration, physical connectivity, VLAN membership, routing tables, and firewall policies as appropriate. Checking the default gateway early is particularly useful when the server can reach local peers but cannot establish connections to external networks.

Question 74

Which addressing method allows a server to retain the same IP address while still receiving its configuration through DHCP?

1. Static assignment
2. DHCP reservation
3. Automatic private addressing
4. Dynamic pool rotation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A DHCP reservation associates a specific client identifier, commonly a MAC address, with a predetermined IP address on the DHCP server. The server continues to receive its configuration dynamically through DHCP while consistently receiving the reserved address. This approach can simplify centralized address management while providing predictable addressing for systems that need stable network identities. A manually configured static assignment does not obtain the address through DHCP. Automatic private addressing is used when DHCP configuration is unavailable in certain client environments, while dynamic pool rotation describes normal address allocation rather than a fixed reservation. Reservations are useful for servers, printers, and infrastructure devices.

Question 75

Which DNS function translates a host name into an IP address so applications can locate the destination system?

1. Forward lookup
2. Reverse lookup
3. Zone transfer
4. Cache aging

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A forward DNS lookup resolves a host name into an IP address. When an application connects to a named server, the client can query DNS to determine the address associated with that name. Reverse lookup performs the opposite process by resolving an IP address to a host name using appropriate reverse DNS records. Zone transfers replicate DNS zone information between authoritative servers, while cache aging controls how long certain records remain cached. Reliable forward name resolution is essential for many server applications, authentication systems, web services, and management tools. DNS troubleshooting should consider both client configuration and authoritative server records.

Question 76

Which mechanism allows a client to resolve a private internal server name without publishing that name on the public Internet?

1. Internal DNS zone
2. Public MX record
3. Internet root hint
4. External registrar entry

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

An internal DNS zone can contain records for private names that are resolvable only within an organization’s internal DNS infrastructure. This allows servers, applications, and users to resolve internal resources without exposing those names or addresses through public DNS. Public MX records are intended for mail routing, while root hints help DNS servers locate authoritative infrastructure rather than directly providing private application records. An external registrar entry may publish information publicly and is therefore not the appropriate mechanism for confidential internal naming. Split-horizon DNS can also be used when internal and external clients need different responses for the same domain.

Question 77

Which server security control restricts inbound and outbound network traffic according to configured rules?

1. Firewall
2. UPS
3. Hypervisor
4. RAID controller

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A firewall controls network traffic by applying configured rules to connections entering or leaving a system or network. Rules can consider characteristics such as source and destination addresses, ports, protocols, interfaces, and connection state. Firewalls can therefore reduce unauthorized network access and limit exposure of server services. A UPS protects against power interruptions, a hypervisor manages virtual machines, and a RAID controller manages redundant storage configurations. Firewall rules should follow the principle of least privilege, allowing only traffic required for legitimate services. Administrators should also review rules periodically to remove obsolete or unnecessarily broad access.

Question 78

Which security principle requires users and services to receive only the permissions necessary to perform their assigned tasks?

1. Separation of duties
2. Least privilege
3. Mandatory rotation
4. Open authorization

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The principle of least privilege requires users, applications, and services to receive only the permissions needed to perform their legitimate functions. Limiting privileges reduces the potential impact of compromised accounts, malicious software, configuration errors, and accidental actions. Separation of duties addresses the distribution of responsibilities so that one individual does not control an entire sensitive process. Mandatory rotation can refer to credential or key changes but does not define the permission principle described here. Open authorization would provide broader access rather than restricting it. Least privilege should be applied to administrative accounts, service accounts, file permissions, network access, and other server resources.

Question 79

Which authentication factor is based on something the user physically possesses?

1. Security token
2. Password phrase
3. Fingerprint pattern
4. Personal knowledge

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A security token is an example of a possession factor because the authentication evidence is based on something the user physically has. Hardware tokens, smart cards, and certain authentication devices can provide this type of factor. A password or personal knowledge represents a knowledge factor, while a fingerprint represents an inherence or biometric factor. Multi-factor authentication becomes stronger when different factor categories are combined, such as a password together with a physical token. Administrators should also consider token lifecycle management, recovery procedures, enrollment, revocation, and protection against theft when deploying possession-based authentication mechanisms.

Question 80

Which authentication factor uses a physical characteristic that is unique or strongly associated with an individual?

1. PIN code
2. Smart card
3. Biometric identifier
4. Recovery question

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A biometric identifier uses a physical or behavioral characteristic associated with an individual for authentication. Examples include fingerprints, facial characteristics, iris patterns, or voice characteristics, depending on the authentication system. A PIN and recovery question are knowledge-based methods, while a smart card is generally considered a possession factor. Biometric authentication can provide convenient identity verification, but administrators should consider privacy, enrollment accuracy, false acceptance, false rejection, and fallback authentication procedures. Biometrics are often most useful as one component of a broader authentication strategy rather than being treated as the only security control protecting sensitive server access.