View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 141.

Which firmware practice helps ensure server hardware remains compatible with supported software?

1. Firmware lifecycle management
2. Desktop personalization
3. Temporary configuration storage
4. Application cache clearing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Firmware lifecycle management involves tracking, testing, deploying, and maintaining firmware throughout the useful life of server hardware. Firmware can affect device compatibility, stability, security, and hardware functionality. Administrators should identify supported versions, review vendor documentation, test updates when practical, and maintain recovery procedures before performing upgrades. Desktop personalization and application cache clearing are unrelated to firmware maintenance. Temporary configuration storage also does not provide a lifecycle management process. Keeping firmware under controlled management helps prevent unsupported combinations and reduces the risk of unexpected behavior after hardware or software changes.

Question 142.

Which server component monitors hardware conditions such as temperature and voltage?

1. Storage controller
2. Network transceiver
3. System management sensors
4. Memory expansion board

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

System management sensors monitor physical conditions within server hardware. They can report values such as processor temperature, system-board temperature, fan status, voltage levels, and other environmental or hardware conditions. Management software can use these readings to generate alerts when values move outside acceptable ranges. A storage controller manages storage communication, a network transceiver handles network signaling, and a memory expansion board provides additional memory connectivity. Monitoring hardware sensors is important because abnormal temperature or voltage conditions can indicate cooling failures, power problems, or hardware faults that may eventually affect server availability.

Question 143.

Which technology allows administrators to boot a server from an image stored on a network server?

1. Local recovery media
2. Network boot service
3. Removable drive boot
4. Optical recovery system

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A network boot service allows a server to obtain boot information or installation resources from a network-based system. This capability is useful when administrators need to deploy operating systems to many machines without preparing physical installation media for every server. Local recovery media, removable drive boot, and optical recovery systems depend on locally attached storage or media. Network-based deployment can simplify large-scale provisioning, but the required network services, boot files, addressing, and server configuration must be available. Administrators should also ensure that deployment infrastructure is protected against unauthorized installation attempts.

Question 144.

Which Windows feature records security-related operating system events for later review?

1. Clipboard history
2. Device personalization
3. Security event auditing
4. Display configuration

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Security event auditing records selected security-related activities so administrators can review them later. Depending on policy and operating-system configuration, these events may include authentication attempts, account changes, privilege use, or other security-relevant actions. Clipboard history stores copied content, device personalization controls user preferences, and display configuration manages visual settings. Effective auditing requires appropriate policy configuration and sufficient log retention. Administrators should also protect collected logs because security records may contain sensitive information and can be valuable during troubleshooting, compliance reviews, or investigation of suspicious activity.

Question 145.

Which Linux command displays currently mounted filesystems and their available space?

1. df
2. passwd
3. uname
4. hostname

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The Linux df command reports filesystem disk-space usage. It can show information such as total capacity, used space, available space, and filesystem mount locations. This makes it useful when administrators need to determine whether a filesystem is approaching capacity. The passwd command manages account passwords, uname displays system information, and hostname reports or changes the system hostname depending on usage and permissions. Administrators frequently use disk-space reporting during troubleshooting because a completely full filesystem can prevent applications from writing logs, temporary files, or other required data.

Question 146.

Which Linux mechanism controls which users may execute commands with elevated privileges?

1. Shell variables
2. sudo policy
3. Kernel scheduler
4. Package index

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A sudo policy controls which users or groups can execute specified commands with elevated privileges through the sudo mechanism. Administrators can define permitted commands and other conditions rather than granting unrestricted administrative access to every user. Shell variables store environment information, the kernel scheduler manages process execution, and a package index contains information about available software packages. Carefully configured sudo policies support controlled administrative access and improve accountability because privileged commands can be associated with individual user accounts rather than relying entirely on shared administrator credentials.

Question 147.

Which Linux package-management feature verifies that software packages came from a trusted source?

1. Package signature verification
2. Temporary package extraction
3. Local cache indexing
4. Dependency display

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Package signature verification uses cryptographic signatures to help confirm that a software package originated from a trusted source and has not been altered after signing. Package managers can use trusted signing keys to validate packages before installation or updates. Temporary package extraction simply unpacks package contents, local cache indexing organizes previously downloaded information, and dependency display shows software relationships. Administrators should keep trusted package repositories and signing keys properly managed because accepting unverified software can introduce security and integrity risks into a server environment.

Question 148.

Which Windows command displays detailed network adapter configuration?

1. route
2. ping
3. ipconfig /all
4. tracert

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The ipconfig /all command displays detailed network configuration information on Windows systems. Depending on the adapter and operating-system version, the output can include IP addresses, subnet information, gateways, DNS servers, physical addresses, and DHCP-related details. The route command focuses on routing information, ping tests network reachability, and tracert displays the path toward a destination. Administrators commonly use ipconfig /all when diagnosing address assignment, DNS configuration, gateway settings, or network-interface problems on Windows servers.

Question 149.

Which network technique allows multiple internal hosts to share one public IPv4 address by using different port numbers?

1. Port Address Translation
2. Address reservation
3. Network tunneling
4. Route summarization

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Port Address Translation, or PAT, allows multiple internal systems to communicate externally while sharing a public IPv4 address. The translation device differentiates simultaneous connections by tracking source port information and associated sessions. Address reservation assigns a predictable address to a particular client, network tunneling carries one protocol through another communication path, and route summarization combines multiple routes into a broader routing entry. PAT is widely used in IPv4 networks because public addresses are limited. Administrators should understand the translation table and any inbound access requirements when designing PAT-based connectivity.

Question 150.

Which IPv6 feature automatically creates a host address using information advertised by a router?

1. Manual prefix assignment
2. DHCP relay operation
3. Stateless Address Autoconfiguration
4. Static gateway mapping

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration, commonly called SLAAC, allows an IPv6 host to configure an address using information advertised by an IPv6 router. The router provides network-prefix information, while the host creates an interface address according to the applicable IPv6 mechanism. Manual prefix assignment requires administrator configuration, DHCP relay forwards certain configuration requests, and static gateway mapping does not provide automatic host addressing. SLAAC can simplify IPv6 deployment because devices do not necessarily require a central address-assignment server for basic address configuration.

Question 151.

Which network diagnostic utility shows the path packets take toward a destination?

1. Path tracing utility
2. DNS cache viewer
3. Address lease monitor
4. Interface statistics tool

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A path tracing utility identifies the intermediate network hops between a source system and a destination. On different operating systems, commands such as traceroute or tracert can provide this information. Administrators use path tracing to identify routing problems, unexpected network paths, unreachable hops, or areas where traffic appears to stop responding. A DNS cache viewer focuses on name-resolution information, an address lease monitor examines address assignments, and an interface statistics tool reports network-interface activity. Path tracing is especially useful when connectivity works partially but traffic does not reach the intended destination.

Question 152.

Which storage technology automatically moves less frequently accessed data to a lower-cost storage tier?

1. Manual archive copying
2. Storage tiering
3. Disk partitioning
4. Volume formatting

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Storage tiering moves data between different storage classes according to defined policies, usage patterns, performance requirements, or other criteria. Frequently accessed information may remain on faster storage, while less active data can be moved to slower and potentially less expensive capacity. Manual archive copying requires administrator intervention, disk partitioning divides storage into logical sections, and volume formatting prepares a storage area for filesystem use. Automated tiering can improve overall storage efficiency, but administrators should establish appropriate policies so important workloads do not experience unexpected performance degradation.

Question 153.

Which backup location provides physical separation from the primary server environment?

1. Same-server repository
2. Attached local disk
3. Off-site backup facility
4. Internal storage partition

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

An off-site backup facility stores backup copies at a physically separate location from the primary server environment. Physical separation helps protect recovery data from events that affect the primary site, such as fire, flooding, major equipment failure, or certain physical security incidents. A same-server repository, attached local disk, and internal storage partition remain closely associated with the primary environment and may be affected by the same incident. Organizations should also consider backup connectivity, retention requirements, security controls, and restoration procedures when designing an off-site backup strategy.

Question 154.

Which backup principle recommends maintaining multiple copies across different storage types and locations?

1. Single-copy preservation
2. Three-copy distribution
3. 3-2-1 backup strategy
4. Continuous local mirroring

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The 3-2-1 backup strategy recommends maintaining multiple copies of important data across different storage media and locations. The traditional model uses three copies of data, stored on two different types of media, with at least one copy kept off-site. The goal is to reduce the chance that one incident will destroy every available recovery copy. Single-copy preservation provides little redundancy, while continuous local mirroring may still leave copies exposed to the same site-level problem. Administrators should adapt the strategy to business requirements, recovery objectives, and available infrastructure.

Question 155.

Which server security process permanently removes data from storage media before disposal?

1. Data sanitization
2. File compression
3. Disk defragmentation
4. Storage indexing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Data sanitization removes sensitive information from storage media so that it cannot be reasonably recovered using normal methods. The appropriate technique depends on the type of media, organizational requirements, and the intended disposition of the device. File compression reduces storage requirements, disk defragmentation reorganizes data on supported storage systems, and storage indexing improves information lookup. Administrators should document sanitization activities when required and follow organizational disposal procedures. Simply deleting files or formatting a volume may not provide sufficient protection for sensitive information when hardware is leaving organizational control.

Question 156.

Which environmental condition can indicate excessive moisture inside a server room?

1. Stable airflow
2. Condensation
3. Normal fan speed
4. Constant power delivery

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Condensation can occur when moisture in the environment reaches a surface whose temperature is below the surrounding air’s dew point. In a server environment, condensation can create serious risks because moisture may contribute to corrosion, electrical problems, or hardware damage. Stable airflow, normal fan speed, and constant power delivery do not directly indicate excessive humidity. Environmental monitoring should therefore include appropriate humidity measurements along with temperature and other facility conditions. Administrators should investigate abnormal moisture conditions promptly and avoid exposing powered equipment to condensation.

Question 157.

Which server documentation identifies dependencies between applications and infrastructure services?

1. Dependency map
2. Hardware receipt
3. User contact sheet
4. License invoice

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A dependency map documents relationships between applications, services, servers, databases, network components, and other infrastructure resources. This information helps administrators understand which systems may be affected when a particular component fails or is taken offline for maintenance. A hardware receipt records purchasing information, a user contact sheet contains contact details, and a license invoice documents a transaction. Dependency mapping is especially valuable during incident response and planned changes because administrators can identify upstream and downstream relationships before modifying a critical component.

Question 158.

Which server cooling arrangement continues operation if one cooling fan fails?

1. Single-fan cooling
2. Passive airflow only
3. Redundant fan array
4. Manual cooling replacement

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A redundant fan array uses multiple cooling fans so that the server can continue receiving airflow if an individual fan fails. Many enterprise servers support hot-swappable or monitored fan assemblies and can generate alerts when a cooling component becomes unavailable. Single-fan cooling creates a single point of failure, passive airflow alone may not provide sufficient cooling for high-performance equipment, and manual cooling replacement describes a maintenance action rather than a redundant design. Administrators should monitor fan health and replace failed components promptly even when redundancy keeps the server operating.

Question 159.

Which power design connects a server to separate electrical sources for improved resilience?

1. Dual power feeds
2. Shared wall outlet
3. Single extension circuit
4. Unprotected power branch

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Dual power feeds connect a server to separate electrical sources so that the loss of one source does not necessarily interrupt server operation. Enterprise servers often support multiple power supply units, allowing administrators to connect them to independent power paths. A shared wall outlet, single extension circuit, or unprotected power branch does not provide the same level of electrical redundancy. The actual resilience depends on whether the upstream power infrastructure is genuinely independent. Administrators should verify power distribution, UPS coverage, and circuit design rather than assuming that two cables automatically provide complete redundancy.

Question 160.

Which operational record documents an approved modification to a production server?

1. Change record
2. Hardware catalog
3. User directory
4. Warranty statement

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A change record documents an authorized modification to a production system. It can contain information such as the requested change, business justification, implementation steps, approval details, maintenance timing, expected impact, and rollback procedure. A hardware catalog tracks equipment, a user directory stores identity information, and a warranty statement describes hardware coverage. Change records provide traceability and help administrators understand what was modified when investigating later incidents. Maintaining accurate records also supports controlled maintenance because future technicians can review previous changes before performing additional work.