View Full CompTIA Tech+ FC0-U71 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 81.

Which type of software is designed to detect, block, and remove malicious software?

1. Spreadsheet software
   2. Antimalware software
   3. Presentation software
   4. Database software

Correct Answer: 2. Antimalware software

Explanation:

Antimalware software is designed to identify, block, quarantine, and remove malicious programs such as viruses, trojans, spyware, and ransomware. It commonly uses signatures, behavioral analysis, reputation services, and other detection techniques. Spreadsheet, presentation, and database applications are productivity tools and do not primarily protect systems from malware. Antimalware is most effective when combined with software updates, secure configuration, backups, least privilege, safe browsing habits, and user awareness.

Question 82.

Which type of attack manipulates people into revealing information or performing unsafe actions?

1. Social engineering
   2. Disk formatting
   3. File compression
   4. Virtualization

Correct Answer: 1. Social engineering

Explanation:

Social engineering attacks target human behavior rather than relying only on technical vulnerabilities. Attackers may impersonate trusted people, create urgency, offer fake rewards, or exploit fear to persuade users to reveal passwords, click malicious links, or bypass security procedures. Phishing is a common form of social engineering. Disk formatting, compression, and virtualization are legitimate computing processes. Security awareness training and independent verification of unusual requests help reduce social engineering risk.

Question 83.

Which security threat involves an attacker watching someone enter a password or PIN?

1. Ransomware
   2. Malware scanning
   3. Shoulder surfing
   4. Encryption

Correct Answer: 3. Shoulder surfing

Explanation:

Shoulder surfing occurs when an attacker observes a person entering sensitive information such as a password, PIN, or access code. It can happen in public places, offices, airports, or other crowded environments. Privacy screens, awareness of surroundings, and shielding the keyboard can reduce risk. Ransomware is malicious software, while encryption and malware scanning are security controls. Physical security remains important because sensitive information can be exposed even when technical protections are otherwise strong.

Question 84.

Which security control converts readable data into an unreadable form that requires a key to restore?

1. Compression
   2. Backup
   3. Hashing only
   4. Encryption

Correct Answer: 4. Encryption

Explanation:

Encryption transforms readable plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and key. Authorized users with the correct key can decrypt the information and restore it to readable form. Encryption can protect data stored on devices and data transmitted across networks. Compression reduces file size, while backups create copies of data. Hashing is generally a one-way process rather than a reversible confidentiality mechanism. Encryption is an important control for protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access.

Question 85.

Which type of backup copies only data that has changed since the most recent backup of any type?

1. Incremental backup
   2. Full backup
   3. Mirror only
   4. Archive only

Correct Answer: 1. Incremental backup

Explanation:

An incremental backup typically copies data that has changed since the most recent backup, whether that previous backup was full or incremental. This usually makes incremental backups faster and smaller than full backups. Restoration may require the last full backup plus each subsequent incremental backup. A full backup copies all selected data. Backup strategies should balance storage usage, backup speed, restore time, retention requirements, and protection against events such as hardware failure or ransomware.

Question 86.

Which type of backup generally copies all data changed since the most recent full backup?

1. Incremental
   2. Differential
   3. Snapshot only
   4. Clone only

Correct Answer: 2. Differential

Explanation:

A differential backup generally includes all data that has changed since the last full backup. Each new differential backup grows as more changes occur after that full backup. Restoration usually requires the most recent full backup and the latest differential backup. Incremental backups typically contain changes since the previous backup of any type. The correct strategy depends on factors such as available storage, recovery time objectives, backup windows, and administrative complexity.

Question 87.

Which storage configuration uses multiple drives to improve redundancy or performance?

1. DNS
   2. DHCP
   3. RAID
   4. VPN

Correct Answer: 3. RAID

Explanation:

RAID, or Redundant Array of Independent Disks, combines multiple physical drives into a logical storage configuration to improve performance, redundancy, or both depending on the RAID level. Some RAID levels mirror data, while others use striping and parity. RAID should not be treated as a complete backup solution because accidental deletion, malware, or corruption can affect the array as well. DNS, DHCP, and VPN are networking technologies and do not describe multi-drive storage arrangements.

Question 88.

Which RAID level mirrors data across two drives for redundancy?

1. RAID 0
   2. RAID 5
   3. RAID 10 only
   4. RAID 1

Correct Answer: 4. RAID 1

Explanation:

RAID 1 mirrors the same data across two or more drives, so one copy may remain available if a drive fails. This provides redundancy but reduces usable capacity because the duplicated data consumes additional storage. RAID 0 uses striping without redundancy. Other RAID levels use different combinations of striping, mirroring, and parity. RAID improves availability but does not replace backups because deletion, corruption, or ransomware can affect all mirrored copies.

Question 89.

Which RAID level uses striping without redundancy and can improve performance at the cost of fault tolerance?

1. RAID 0
   2. RAID 1
   3. RAID 5
   4. RAID 6

Correct Answer: 1. RAID 0

Explanation:

RAID 0 stripes data across multiple drives to improve performance and combine capacity. However, it provides no redundancy. If any drive in the array fails, data across the array may become unavailable. RAID 1 mirrors data, while RAID 5 and RAID 6 use parity-based approaches. RAID 0 may be suitable where speed is important and data can be recreated, but it should not be selected when fault tolerance is required.

Question 90.

Which practice helps ensure that backed-up data can actually be recovered when needed?

1. Never test backups
   2. Perform periodic restore tests
   3. Keep only one backup copy
   4. Store backups on the same failed drive

Correct Answer: 2. Perform periodic restore tests

Explanation:

A backup is useful only if it can be successfully restored. Periodic restore testing confirms that backup files are readable, complete, and suitable for recovery. Testing can also reveal missing data, incorrect configurations, or corrupted backup sets before an emergency occurs. Keeping only one backup copy or storing backups on the same device creates unnecessary risk. Organizations should document recovery procedures and periodically verify that important systems and files can be restored within acceptable timeframes.

Question 91.

Which cloud characteristic allows computing resources to be increased or decreased as demand changes?

1. Elasticity
   2. File compression
   3. Local-only storage
   4. Static addressing

Correct Answer: 1. Elasticity

Explanation:

Elasticity allows cloud resources to scale up or down in response to changing workload demands. For example, an application may use additional compute resources during a period of heavy traffic and reduce them afterward. This can improve flexibility and cost efficiency. Compression and static addressing are unrelated, while local-only storage does not describe a cloud scaling capability. Elasticity is one of the major benefits of cloud computing because organizations do not always need to permanently purchase enough physical hardware for peak usage.

Question 92.

Which cloud deployment model is operated for the exclusive use of a single organization?

1. Public cloud
   2. Private cloud
   3. Community Wi-Fi
   4. Peer-to-peer cloud

Correct Answer: 2. Private cloud

Explanation:

A private cloud is designed for the exclusive use of one organization. It may be hosted in the organization’s own data center or provided by a third party. Public cloud resources are offered to many customers using shared provider infrastructure. Private cloud environments can provide greater control over security, governance, or customization but may require more management and cost. The correct model depends on business, technical, compliance, and financial requirements.

Question 93.

Which cloud deployment model provides services to many customers over shared provider infrastructure?

1. Private cloud
   2. Local network only
   3. Public cloud
   4. Offline cloud

Correct Answer: 3. Public cloud

Explanation:

A public cloud provides computing services over infrastructure operated by a cloud provider and shared among many customers using logical separation. Organizations can consume services such as virtual machines, databases, storage, and applications without owning the underlying physical data centers. Private cloud is dedicated to one organization. Public cloud can provide scalability and flexibility, but customers must understand the shared-responsibility model and configure their resources securely.

Question 94.

Which cloud approach combines private infrastructure with public cloud services?

1. SaaS only
   2. LAN
   3. PAN
   4. Hybrid cloud

Correct Answer: 4. Hybrid cloud

Explanation:

A hybrid cloud combines private infrastructure with public cloud services. An organization might keep sensitive workloads in a private environment while using public cloud resources for scalability, backups, or less sensitive applications. Hybrid designs can provide flexibility but also introduce additional complexity in networking, security, identity, and management. LAN and PAN describe network scope, while SaaS is a cloud service model rather than a deployment model.

Question 95.

Which technology establishes an encrypted connection over an untrusted network such as the internet?

1. VPN
   2. RAID
   3. SATA
   4. HDMI

Correct Answer: 1. VPN

Explanation:

A Virtual Private Network, or VPN, creates an encrypted connection across an untrusted network. It can allow remote users to access organizational resources securely or protect traffic between network locations. RAID is a storage technology, SATA connects storage devices, and HDMI carries digital audio and video. VPN security depends on appropriate protocols, authentication, configuration, and endpoint protection. Users should still follow normal security practices even when a VPN is active.

Question 96.

Which protocol is commonly used to automatically synchronize a computer’s clock with a time server?

1. SMTP
   2. NTP
   3. FTP
   4. IMAP

Correct Answer: 2. NTP

Explanation:

NTP, or Network Time Protocol, is used to synchronize system clocks across networks. Accurate time is important for logs, authentication, certificates, scheduled tasks, troubleshooting, and security monitoring. SMTP is used for sending email, FTP transfers files, and IMAP is commonly used for email access and synchronization. Incorrect system time can cause authentication failures or make event logs difficult to correlate during troubleshooting.

Question 97.

Which networking tool is commonly used to test whether an IP host is reachable?

1. Format
   2. Defrag
   3. Ping
   4. Encrypt

Correct Answer: 3. Ping

Explanation:

Ping is commonly used to test IP connectivity by sending ICMP echo requests and checking for responses. It can help determine whether a host is reachable and provide basic information about response time. However, some devices or firewalls block ICMP, so a failed ping does not always prove that the target system is offline. Formatting, defragmentation, and encryption are unrelated to reachability testing. Ping is often one of the first tools used during basic network troubleshooting.

Question 98.

Which command is commonly used to display the path packets take toward a remote destination?

1. Ping
   2. Ipconfig
   3. Nslookup
   4. Traceroute

Correct Answer: 4. Traceroute

Explanation:

Traceroute, or tracert on some systems, displays the sequence of network hops that packets traverse toward a destination. It can help identify where delays or connectivity failures occur along a route. Ping primarily tests reachability, ipconfig displays local IP configuration on Windows, and nslookup queries DNS information. Traceroute results should be interpreted carefully because some network devices may not respond to its probes even when they continue forwarding normal traffic.

Question 99.

Which tool is most appropriate for testing DNS name resolution?

1. Nslookup
   2. Format
   3. Task Manager
   4. Disk Cleanup

Correct Answer: 1. Nslookup

Explanation:

Nslookup can query DNS servers and help determine whether a domain name resolves to an IP address. It is useful when users can reach resources by IP address but cannot access them by hostname. Formatting and Disk Cleanup are storage-related utilities, while Task Manager monitors processes and system resource usage. DNS troubleshooting should also consider the configured DNS server, network connectivity to that server, cached records, and whether the requested name actually exists.

Question 100.

A user can reach a website by IP address but not by its domain name. Which service should be investigated first?

1. DHCP
   2. DNS
   3. Bluetooth
   4. SATA

Correct Answer: 2. DNS

Explanation:

If direct IP connectivity works but the domain name does not, DNS is the most likely service to investigate. DNS translates human-readable names into IP addresses. The technician should check the configured DNS server, test name resolution, and verify that the correct record exists. DHCP may have originally supplied the DNS configuration, but the immediate symptom points to name resolution. Bluetooth and SATA are unrelated. A layered troubleshooting approach helps isolate the failing service efficiently.