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Question 101

Which OSPF LSA describes an ASBR’s external routes?

1. Type 1
2. Type 2
3. Type 3
4. Type 5

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Type 5 LSAs are used by OSPF to describe external routes redistributed into the OSPF autonomous system. These routes are originated by an ASBR and can be advertised throughout the OSPF domain, subject to area restrictions. Type 1 LSAs describe router information, Type 2 LSAs describe transit networks, and Type 3 LSAs are used by ABRs to advertise inter-area networks. Knowing LSA types helps administrators understand how OSPF distributes topology and external routing information.

Question 102

Which OSPF LSA is originated by an ABR for inter-area routes?

1. Type 1
2. Type 3
3. Type 4
4. Type 7

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Type 3 LSAs, also called Summary LSAs, are generated by an Area Border Router to advertise networks from one OSPF area into another. They allow routers to learn about inter-area destinations without requiring the complete internal topology of another area. Type 1 LSAs describe routers within an area, while Type 4 LSAs provide information about reaching an ASBR. Type 7 LSAs are associated with external routes in certain special-area configurations. Understanding Type 3 LSAs is important for troubleshooting inter-area reachability.

Question 103

Which OSPF router connects different areas?

1. ASBR
2. Internal router
3. ABR
4. DR

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

An Area Border Router, or ABR, connects different OSPF areas and maintains interfaces or logical participation in multiple areas. It exchanges routing information between those areas and can generate Type 3 LSAs to advertise networks across area boundaries. An ASBR instead connects OSPF with routes learned from another routing source. A DR is elected on certain multi-access networks to reduce adjacency overhead. Proper ABR placement is important when designing hierarchical OSPF networks.

Question 104

Which OSPF area is the backbone area?

1. Area 0
2. Area 1
3. Area 10
4. Area 100

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Area 0 is the OSPF backbone area. Inter-area OSPF communication is designed to pass through the backbone, making Area 0 central to hierarchical OSPF operation. Other areas can connect to the backbone through ABRs. Proper backbone connectivity is important because an incorrectly designed area topology can prevent expected inter-area routes from being exchanged. In larger networks, dividing routers into areas reduces the amount of topology information that individual routers must process.

Question 105

Which OSPF algorithm calculates shortest paths?

1. Bellman-Ford
2. DUAL
3. SPF
4. Path Vector

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

OSPF uses the Shortest Path First algorithm to calculate routes from the information stored in its link-state database. Each router builds a topology representation and calculates shortest paths from itself toward reachable destinations. This differs from distance-vector protocols that rely primarily on information received from neighboring routers. SPF calculations allow OSPF to respond to topology changes while maintaining a consistent view of the network. Frequent topology changes can trigger recalculations, so network stability is important for efficient operation.

Question 106

Which OSPF interface value directly influences path cost?

1. Bandwidth
2. MAC address
3. MTU size
4. VLAN ID

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

OSPF cost is commonly derived from interface bandwidth. Higher-bandwidth interfaces generally receive lower costs, making them more attractive during SPF route calculation. Administrators can also configure OSPF interface cost manually when the default calculation does not produce the desired routing behavior. MAC addresses, VLAN identifiers, and MTU values serve different networking purposes and do not directly determine the normal OSPF path cost calculation. Reviewing interface costs can therefore help explain unexpected OSPF path selection.

Question 107

Which STP port becomes the best path toward the root?

1. Designated port
2. Alternate port
3. Root port
4. Edge port

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A root port is the port on a non-root switch that provides the best path toward the STP root bridge. Each non-root switch normally selects one root port based on the applicable path-selection criteria. Designated ports serve particular network segments, while alternate ports can provide backup paths in RSTP. Edge ports are intended for end-device connections. Identifying root ports is useful when examining the Layer 2 forwarding topology and determining how traffic reaches the elected root bridge.

Question 108

Which STP mechanism protects against unexpected BPDUs on edge ports?

1. BPDU protection
2. MAC filtering
3. DHCP snooping
4. Route protection

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

BPDU protection is designed to protect edge ports from receiving unexpected Bridge Protocol Data Units. Edge ports are normally intended for end devices and are expected not to participate in the switching topology. If a switching device is connected and begins sending BPDUs, the configured protection mechanism can take action according to the device’s behavior. This helps prevent accidental topology changes caused by inappropriate connections. BPDU protection is therefore useful for strengthening access-layer Layer 2 security.

Question 109

Which feature blocks traffic from unauthorized source IP-MAC bindings?

1. STP
2. IPSG
3. LACP
4. LLDP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

IP Source Guard, or IPSG, uses IP-to-MAC binding information to restrict traffic from unauthorized source addresses. The device can obtain bindings dynamically, such as through DHCP snooping, or use configured bindings depending on the deployment. This helps reduce risks associated with hosts using incorrect or unauthorized IP addresses. STP handles Layer 2 loop prevention, LACP manages link aggregation, and LLDP provides neighbor discovery. IPSG is therefore associated with source-address validation at the access layer.

Question 110

Which DHCP feature can build IP-MAC binding entries?

1. DHCP relay
2. DHCP client
3. DHCP snooping
4. DHCP pool

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

DHCP snooping can create binding information based on DHCP exchanges between clients and servers. These bindings can contain information such as the assigned IP address, client MAC address, VLAN, and interface. The resulting information can support security mechanisms such as IP Source Guard. DHCP snooping is commonly enabled on access-layer switches where client devices request addresses dynamically. Correct trust configuration is important because DHCP server responses should normally be accepted only through appropriate trusted paths.

Question 111

Which NAT method lets many hosts share one public address?

1. PAT
2. Static NAT
3. One-to-one NAT
4. Address mapping

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Port Address Translation, or PAT, allows multiple internal hosts to share a public IPv4 address by distinguishing sessions with transport-layer port numbers. This significantly reduces the number of public IPv4 addresses required for outbound connectivity. Each translated session can be associated with a unique source-port combination. Static NAT instead creates a fixed one-to-one mapping between addresses. PAT is widely used at enterprise Internet gateways because it allows many private hosts to access external networks through a limited public address allocation.

Question 112

Which AAA function determines permitted user services?

1. Authentication
2. Authorization
3. Accounting
4. Auditing

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Authorization determines what an authenticated user is allowed to access or perform. In the AAA model, authentication verifies identity, authorization controls permissions, and accounting records relevant usage or session information. For network administration, authorization can determine which commands or services a particular account may use. Separating these functions provides more structured access control than simply verifying a username and password. Proper AAA design can therefore help limit administrative privileges according to operational responsibilities.

Question 113

Which protocol commonly transports RADIUS authentication messages?

1. TCP
2. SCTP
3. UDP
4. ICMP

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

RADIUS commonly uses UDP for authentication, authorization, and accounting communication. A network device acting as a RADIUS client sends authentication requests to the configured RADIUS server, which processes the request and returns an appropriate response. RADIUS is widely used for centralized network access control. TCP, SCTP, and ICMP are not the normal transport choices for standard RADIUS communication. When troubleshooting RADIUS, administrators should verify server reachability, shared secrets, ports, and client configuration.

Question 114

Which secure protocol replaces Telnet for remote CLI access?

1. FTP
2. SSH
3. TFTP
4. HTTP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and is commonly used instead of Telnet. Telnet transmits session information without the same level of protection, making it unsuitable for secure administrative access across untrusted networks. SSH protects the management session through encryption and supports secure authentication. Network administrators commonly configure SSH on routers and switches so that remote management traffic is protected. When deploying secure device administration, SSH should be paired with strong authentication and appropriate access restrictions.

Question 115

Which file transfer protocol uses UDP and minimal overhead?

1. FTP
2. HTTP
3. TFTP
4. SCP

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

TFTP, or Trivial File Transfer Protocol, uses UDP and provides a simple file-transfer mechanism with relatively little protocol overhead. It is often used in network environments for tasks such as transferring configuration or firmware-related files where a lightweight service is sufficient. Unlike FTP, TFTP does not provide the same extensive authentication and session-management capabilities. Because of its simplicity, administrators should deploy it carefully and restrict access appropriately when transferring network device files.

Question 116

Which multicast protocol manages IPv4 host group membership?

1. IGMP
2. OSPF
3. ARP
4. VRRP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

IGMP, or Internet Group Management Protocol, manages IPv4 multicast group membership between hosts and multicast routers. Hosts use IGMP messages to indicate interest in receiving multicast traffic, while routers use that information to manage multicast forwarding behavior. IGMP is different from routing protocols such as OSPF and from address-resolution mechanisms such as ARP. Understanding multicast membership is important when troubleshooting applications such as streaming, conferencing, or other services that rely on IPv4 multicast communication.

Question 117

Which multicast technique prevents unnecessary traffic on switch ports?

1. Port security
2. IGMP snooping
3. DHCP relay
4. ARP inspection

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

IGMP snooping allows a Layer 2 switch to examine IGMP messages and determine which ports have interested multicast receivers. The switch can then forward multicast traffic only toward relevant ports instead of treating it like ordinary broadcast traffic across the VLAN. This reduces unnecessary multicast traffic and improves bandwidth efficiency. IGMP snooping is particularly useful in networks carrying video, streaming, or other multicast applications. Correct multicast-router and VLAN configuration remains important for the feature to operate as expected.

Question 118

Which protocol provides first-hop gateway redundancy?

1. VRRP
2. STP
3. LACP
4. CAPWAP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

VRRP provides first-hop redundancy by allowing multiple routers to share a virtual gateway identity. Hosts can use the virtual IP address as their default gateway while one participating router handles forwarding. If the active router becomes unavailable, another participating router can assume the forwarding role. This avoids requiring hosts to change their gateway configuration during a router failure. VRRP is therefore useful for improving availability at the default-gateway layer in enterprise networks.

Question 119

Which protocol is commonly used for network management monitoring?

1. SNMP
2. SMTP
3. SIP
4. SMB

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

SNMP, or Simple Network Management Protocol, is commonly used to monitor and manage network devices. A network management system can retrieve operational information from SNMP agents, such as interface statistics, device status, and other management values. SNMP can also support notifications for significant events. This makes it useful for centralized monitoring across routers, switches, wireless devices, and other infrastructure. Administrators should configure appropriate SNMP versions and access controls to reduce unauthorized management access.

Question 120

Which automation protocol commonly uses XML for network configuration?

1. NETCONF
2. Telnet
3. TFTP
4. FTP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

NETCONF is a network management protocol designed for programmatic configuration and operational management of network devices. It commonly uses XML-encoded data and provides structured operations for retrieving and modifying configuration information. This makes NETCONF more suitable for automation than interactive protocols such as Telnet. Network automation systems can use NETCONF to apply consistent configurations across multiple devices and reduce repetitive manual work. Proper authentication and authorization remain important when exposing automated configuration interfaces.