ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part4 Q61-80

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Question 61

Which process identifies critical business functions and determines the impact of their disruption over time?

  1. Risk assessment
  2. Business impact analysis
  3. Vulnerability assessment
  4. Threat hunting

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A Business Impact Analysis, or BIA, identifies critical business processes and evaluates the consequences of their disruption. It considers factors such as financial losses, operational effects, regulatory consequences, reputational damage, and dependencies on technology or personnel. The BIA also helps establish recovery priorities and requirements such as Recovery Time Objectives and Recovery Point Objectives. Unlike a general risk assessment, which considers threats and vulnerabilities, the BIA concentrates on understanding business consequences when important processes or services become unavailable or degraded.

Question 62

Which type of information is generally considered personally identifiable information because it can directly identify an individual?

  1. Public company revenue
  2. Anonymous temperature readings
  3. Government-issued identification number
  4. Generic software version

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A government-issued identification number is generally considered Personally Identifiable Information, or PII, because it can be directly associated with a specific individual. Depending on applicable laws and organizational policies, other examples can include names, addresses, identification numbers, biometric information, and certain online identifiers. The exact definition of PII varies by jurisdiction and regulatory framework. Organizations should identify applicable privacy requirements before determining how personal information must be collected, processed, stored, shared, retained, and securely destroyed.

Question 63

Which security concept requires organizations to ensure that personal information is used only for the purposes communicated when it was collected?

  1. Purpose limitation
  2. Data masking
  3. Network isolation
  4. Privilege escalation

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Purpose limitation is a privacy principle requiring organizations to collect and use personal information for specified, legitimate purposes. Information should not generally be repurposed in ways that conflict with the purposes communicated to individuals or permitted by applicable requirements. Organizations should define why personal information is needed and establish controls to prevent unauthorized secondary uses. Purpose limitation works alongside other privacy principles such as transparency, data minimization, retention limitation, and accountability. These principles help organizations reduce inappropriate processing and maintain responsible handling of personal information.

Question 64

Which type of security control is intended to discourage an individual from attempting an unauthorized activity by making the consequences clear?

  1. Corrective
  2. Preventive
  3. Detective
  4. Deterrent

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

Deterrent controls are designed to discourage people from attempting unauthorized or undesirable actions by increasing the perceived likelihood or consequences of being caught. Examples can include warning banners, visible security cameras, disciplinary policies, and clearly communicated legal consequences. Deterrent controls may not physically prevent an attack, but they can influence behavior before an incident occurs. Preventive controls actively attempt to block unwanted activity, detective controls identify events, and corrective controls restore systems after an incident. Organizations often combine deterrent controls with other control types.

Question 65

Which type of firewall makes filtering decisions based primarily on source address, destination address, port, and protocol information?

  1. Packet-filtering firewall
  2. Application proxy
  3. Web application firewall
  4. Next-generation endpoint firewall

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A packet-filtering firewall makes access decisions based primarily on network and transport-layer information such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. Rules can allow or deny traffic according to predefined criteria. Packet filtering is generally efficient but may provide less application-level visibility than more advanced firewall technologies. An application proxy can inspect traffic at higher layers, while a Web Application Firewall focuses on web application traffic and threats. Packet-filtering firewalls remain a fundamental network security mechanism and are often combined with additional controls.

Question 66

An administrator wants to restrict communication between two network segments so that only explicitly approved traffic can pass between them. Which control is most appropriate?

  1. File integrity monitoring
  2. Network access control rules
  3. Data classification
  4. Password rotation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Network access control rules can restrict communication between network segments by defining which source systems, destinations, protocols, ports, or applications are permitted. Firewalls and network security groups are common technologies used to enforce these restrictions. Proper segmentation and restrictive rules can limit lateral movement and reduce exposure between systems with different trust levels. File integrity monitoring focuses on changes to files, data classification determines information sensitivity, and password rotation manages credentials. Network communication should generally follow a deny-by-default approach where practical, allowing only required traffic.

Question 67

Which wireless security protocol provides stronger protection than legacy WEP by using modern cryptographic mechanisms?

  1. WEP
  2. WPA2
  3. Telnet
  4. FTP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

WPA2 provides substantially stronger wireless security than the legacy WEP protocol and has been widely deployed using the AES-based CCMP encryption mechanism. WPA2 can be implemented in personal or enterprise configurations, with enterprise deployments commonly integrating authentication infrastructure such as an 802.1X framework. WEP has significant cryptographic weaknesses and should not be relied upon for modern security requirements. Telnet and FTP are unrelated application protocols. Organizations should select the strongest wireless security standard supported by their infrastructure and compatible requirements.

Question 68

Which network device primarily forwards packets between different IP networks based on routing information?

  1. Switch
  2. Hub
  3. Router
  4. Repeater

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A router forwards packets between different IP networks using routing information to determine an appropriate destination path. Routers operate primarily at the network layer and can implement routing protocols, access control rules, network address translation, and other functions depending on the platform. A switch primarily connects devices within a local network and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. A hub repeats signals to connected ports without making intelligent forwarding decisions, while a repeater regenerates signals to extend transmission distance. Routers are therefore fundamental components for interconnecting separate networks.

Question 69

Which technology allows multiple internal hosts to share a limited number of public IP addresses when communicating with external networks?

  1. NAT
  2. DNS
  3. DHCP
  4. LDAP

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Network Address Translation, or NAT, allows private internal addresses to be translated into public addresses when communicating with external networks. Many implementations can allow numerous internal hosts to share a single public IPv4 address by using different source port mappings. NAT can help conserve public IPv4 addresses and can provide a degree of address hiding, although it should not be considered a replacement for a properly configured security control. DNS resolves names to addresses, DHCP assigns network configuration, and LDAP provides directory services.

Question 70

Which protocol is commonly used to synchronize system clocks across networked devices?

  1. SMTP
  2. NTP
  3. IMAP
  4. SFTP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Network Time Protocol, or NTP, synchronizes clocks among networked systems. Accurate time is important for security because timestamps are used in audit logs, authentication mechanisms, certificates, event correlation, and incident investigations. If systems have significantly different times, security teams may struggle to reconstruct the sequence of events during an incident. NTP can obtain time information from trusted time sources and distribute synchronized time across an organization’s infrastructure. SMTP handles email transmission, IMAP provides email retrieval, and SFTP supports secure file transfer.

Question 71

Which security mechanism can provide centralized authentication for network devices and remote access services while separating authentication, authorization, and accounting functions?

  1. RAID
  2. RADIUS
  3. DNS
  4. SNMP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

RADIUS, or Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service, is commonly used to provide centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services for network access. It can integrate with network devices, wireless infrastructure, VPN services, and other systems requiring centralized access control. Centralization allows administrators to manage authentication policies more consistently instead of maintaining separate credentials on every network device. RADIUS is especially useful in enterprise environments where users require access to multiple network services. DNS resolves names, SNMP supports network management, and RAID provides storage redundancy.

Question 72

Which protocol is commonly used to securely query and modify directory information over an encrypted connection?

  1. LDAP
  2. LDAPS
  3. FTP
  4. TFTP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

LDAPS refers to LDAP communication protected using TLS, providing confidentiality and integrity for directory-service communications. Directory services can store identities, groups, attributes, and other information used by applications and authentication systems. Encrypting these communications helps protect credentials and directory data from interception or manipulation while traveling across a network. Standard LDAP without an appropriate secure transport can expose sensitive information. FTP and TFTP are file-transfer protocols and are not designed for directory services. Organizations should configure secure directory communication according to their authentication architecture and requirements.

Question 73

Which storage configuration improves availability by writing identical data simultaneously to two or more disks?

  1. RAID 0
  2. RAID 1
  3. RAID 5
  4. JBOD

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

RAID 1 uses mirroring, meaning data is written to two disks so that one disk can continue providing the data if the other fails. This improves availability and provides redundancy but typically reduces usable capacity because approximately half of the raw storage is used for the mirrored copy. RAID 0 uses striping without redundancy, while RAID 5 combines striping with distributed parity and can tolerate a single disk failure. JBOD simply groups disks without necessarily providing redundancy. RAID should not be treated as a replacement for backups.

Question 74

Which cloud service model provides customers with virtual machines, storage, and networking resources while leaving the underlying physical infrastructure managed by the provider?

  1. SaaS
  2. PaaS
  3. IaaS
  4. XaaS

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Infrastructure as a Service, or IaaS, provides customers with virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking while the cloud provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure. Customers generally retain significant responsibility for operating systems, applications, configurations, and security settings within their allocated environment. Platform as a Service abstracts more of the underlying infrastructure and provides application development platforms, while Software as a Service delivers complete applications. Understanding these service models is important because security responsibilities vary depending on how much infrastructure the provider manages.

Question 75

Which cloud deployment model is dedicated to a single organization and may be hosted on-premises or by a third-party provider?

  1. Public cloud
  2. Community cloud
  3. Hybrid cloud
  4. Private cloud

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

A private cloud is designed for exclusive use by a single organization. It may be operated within the organization’s own facilities or hosted by a third-party provider. Private cloud environments can provide greater control over infrastructure configuration, security requirements, and data placement than some shared environments. A public cloud provides services to multiple customers through a provider’s shared infrastructure. A hybrid cloud combines private and public cloud environments, while a community cloud is designed for organizations sharing common requirements. The appropriate model depends on business, regulatory, technical, and operational needs.

Question 76

An organization wants to ensure that cloud resources are deployed consistently using predefined templates rather than manual configuration. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Infrastructure as Code
  2. Manual provisioning
  3. Data masking
  4. Network sniffing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Infrastructure as Code, or IaC, uses machine-readable definitions or templates to provision and manage infrastructure consistently. Instead of manually configuring each server, network, or service, administrators can define desired resources and deploy them repeatedly. IaC improves consistency, supports version control, enables automation, and can reduce configuration drift. It can also help integrate infrastructure changes into controlled development and deployment workflows. Manual provisioning is more susceptible to inconsistency and human error. Data masking and network sniffing address entirely different security concerns.

Question 77

Which technology can isolate an application’s execution environment from the underlying host system while sharing the host operating system kernel?

  1. Virtual machine
  2. Container
  3. Hypervisor
  4. Bare-metal server

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Containers provide isolated application execution environments while typically sharing the host operating system kernel. They package applications and their dependencies into portable units that can be deployed consistently across compatible environments. Containers are generally more lightweight than traditional virtual machines because each virtual machine typically includes a complete guest operating system. A hypervisor manages virtual machines but is not itself an application isolation unit. Although containers provide useful isolation, organizations must still configure appropriate privileges, namespaces, security policies, image controls, and runtime protections.

Question 78

Which security technology is specifically designed to inspect and filter HTTP and HTTPS requests to protect web applications from attacks such as SQL injection?

  1. Network firewall
  2. Web Application Firewall
  3. VPN concentrator
  4. Mail gateway

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A Web Application Firewall, or WAF, is designed to inspect web application traffic, typically HTTP and HTTPS, and apply rules that can detect or block malicious requests. WAF technologies can help defend against attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, malicious request patterns, and other web-layer threats. A traditional network firewall primarily controls network traffic based on addresses, ports, and protocols, while a VPN concentrator supports secure remote connectivity. WAF protection should complement secure application development rather than replace proper input validation and secure coding practices.

Question 79

Which security concept ensures that an application verifies authorization before allowing access to a protected resource?

  1. Access control
  2. Data remanence
  3. Nonrepudiation
  4. Availability

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Access control determines whether a subject is permitted to access a particular resource or perform a requested operation. A properly designed access control mechanism evaluates the user’s identity, applicable permissions, policies, and sometimes additional attributes or conditions before granting access. Effective access control supports confidentiality and integrity by preventing unauthorized users from viewing or modifying protected information. Controls can be implemented using roles, access control lists, attributes, policies, or other authorization mechanisms. Access control should follow least privilege and should be reviewed regularly as organizational responsibilities change.

Question 80

Which security principle recommends minimizing shared mechanisms between users or processes to reduce the possibility that one compromise affects another?

  1. Least privilege
  2. Least common mechanism
  3. Complete mediation
  4. Open design

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The least common mechanism principle recommends minimizing the mechanisms shared among different users or processes. Shared resources can create unintended interactions and provide opportunities for one subject to influence or compromise another. Reducing unnecessary sharing can improve isolation and limit the potential impact of security failures. Least privilege restricts permissions to what is necessary, complete mediation requires access decisions to be checked appropriately, and open design states that security should not depend on secrecy of system design. Least common mechanism is particularly relevant when designing isolated processes, applications, and system components.