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Question 321.

Which security principle requires administrators to grant only the permissions necessary for a specific job function?

1. Least privilege
   2. Open authorization
   3. Shared access
   4. Unlimited trust

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Least privilege means users and administrators receive only the permissions required to perform authorized responsibilities. This reduces the damage that can result from stolen credentials, accidental changes, or malicious activity. Open authorization and unlimited trust provide broader access than necessary, while shared access can weaken accountability. Organizations can support least privilege through role-based permissions, access reviews, separate privileged accounts, and temporary elevation when additional permissions are required.

Question 322.

Which Palo Alto Networks capability allows firewall policy to identify the actual application using a connection?

1. DHCP relay
   2. Static routing
   3. VLAN tagging
   4. Application identification

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Application identification helps determine which application is generating traffic instead of relying only on ports and protocols. This is useful because multiple applications may use common ports such as TCP 443, while some applications dynamically select ports. DHCP relay forwards DHCP messages, static routing determines network paths, and VLAN tagging identifies Layer 2 network membership. Application-aware policy provides greater visibility and allows administrators to create more precise security controls.

Question 323.

Which type of attack attempts to obtain confidential information by pretending to be a trusted individual or organization?

1. Load balancing
   2. Data replication
   3. Social engineering
   4. File compression

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Social engineering manipulates people into revealing information or taking actions that benefit an attacker. Phishing, impersonation, fraudulent support calls, and fake login pages are common examples. Load balancing distributes workloads, data replication creates copies of information, and file compression reduces file size. Security awareness, verification procedures, multi-factor authentication, and technical controls can reduce social-engineering risk.

Question 324.

Which statement best describes a firewall security rule?

1. It automatically creates backups.
   2. It defines how matching network traffic should be handled.
   3. It replaces all endpoint controls.
   4. It assigns passwords to users.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A firewall security rule defines the conditions under which traffic should be allowed, denied, logged, or inspected. Rules may consider source and destination zones, users, applications, addresses, and services. They do not replace endpoint protection or create backups or passwords. Well-designed firewall rules should follow least privilege, use clear documentation, and be reviewed periodically to remove obsolete or overly broad access.

Question 325.

Which action most directly helps reduce the risk from an unused administrative account?

1. Disable the account when it is no longer required.
   2. Share it with other employees.
   3. Remove authentication from the account.
   4. Allow access from any internet address.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Unused administrative accounts should be disabled or removed because they create unnecessary opportunities for unauthorized access. Attackers may exploit forgotten accounts if credentials are exposed. Sharing accounts reduces accountability, while removing authentication or allowing unrestricted access significantly increases risk. Privileged-account lifecycle management should include creation, approval, periodic review, monitoring, and timely deactivation.

Question 326.

Which protocol is commonly used for secure command-line administration and usually operates over TCP port 22?

1. HTTP
   2. Telnet
   3. FTP
   4. SSH

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and commonly uses TCP port 22. It protects administrative credentials and session data from straightforward interception. Telnet offers similar terminal access but generally lacks strong encryption. HTTP is used for web communication, while FTP is used for file transfer. SSH should still be combined with restricted management access, strong authentication, logging, and individual administrator accounts.

Question 327.

Which security tool is most useful for monitoring suspicious process behavior on an endpoint?

1. Static route
   2. DNS forwarder
   3. Endpoint detection and response
   4. VLAN trunk

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Endpoint detection and response monitors host-level activity such as processes, files, network connections, and suspicious behavioral patterns. It can help security teams investigate malware, credential abuse, and potentially malicious scripts. Static routing, DNS forwarding, and VLAN trunking are networking functions rather than endpoint-security functions. EDR complements network security because some attacks take place directly on endpoints after malicious code executes.

Question 328.

Which statement best describes authentication?

1. It determines what an authenticated user can access.
   2. It verifies the identity of a user or device.
   3. It automatically creates backups.
   4. It assigns network addresses.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Authentication verifies that a user or device is who or what it claims to be. Passwords, certificates, biometrics, tokens, and multi-factor methods can be used for authentication. Authorization is different because it determines what an authenticated identity can access. Backups provide recovery capability, while DHCP commonly assigns network settings. Strong authentication is especially important for privileged accounts and remote access.

Question 329.

Which security objective is most directly compromised if an attacker secretly modifies firewall policy?

1. Integrity
   2. Availability
   3. Scalability
   4. Portability

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Integrity ensures that data and configurations remain accurate and are not modified without authorization. Unauthorized firewall changes can weaken security rules and expose systems, making configuration integrity important. Availability concerns keeping systems accessible, scalability concerns supporting growth, and portability concerns moving systems or data between environments. Access controls, configuration logs, hashes, change management, and backups can help protect and verify integrity.

Question 330.

Which event most strongly indicates a possible denial-of-service attack?

1. A user successfully changes a password.
   2. A scheduled backup completes.
   3. An administrator performs a planned update.
   4. A public application receives excessive requests and becomes unavailable.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A denial-of-service attack attempts to exhaust network bandwidth, processing capacity, connection resources, or other system capabilities so legitimate users cannot access a service. A sudden flood of requests combined with service disruption is a strong indicator. Routine password changes, backups, and planned updates are normal events. DDoS mitigation may involve filtering, rate controls, traffic scrubbing, resilient architecture, and upstream protection.

Question 331.

Which Palo Alto Networks log type is most useful for determining whether a threat such as an exploit was detected?

1. Hardware log
   2. Configuration log
   3. Threat log
   4. Employee log

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Threat logs contain information about malicious activity detected by security inspection features. Depending on configuration, they may show exploits, malware, suspicious traffic, source and destination information, applications, and the action taken. Configuration logs focus on administrative changes. Hardware and employee logs are not the primary sources for threat detections. Threat logs are useful during investigations because they help analysts understand what type of malicious activity was observed.

Question 332.

Which statement best describes source network address translation?

1. It verifies user identity.
   2. It changes the source IP address as traffic passes through a device.
   3. It scans endpoints for malware.
   4. It creates user permissions.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Source NAT changes the source address of traffic as it passes through a firewall or router. A common use is translating private internal IP addresses into a public address for internet communication. NAT does not authenticate users, scan endpoints, or assign permissions. Security policy and NAT perform separate functions: NAT changes address information, while security rules determine whether the communication should be allowed.

Question 333.

Which practice best prevents users from retaining permissions they no longer need after changing roles?

1. Periodic access reviews
   2. Shared passwords
   3. Permanent administrator access
   4. Anonymous login

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Periodic access reviews help identify permissions that are no longer required after job changes, project completion, or organizational restructuring. Removing outdated permissions supports least privilege and reduces the impact of compromised accounts. Shared passwords and permanent administrator rights increase risk, while anonymous login reduces accountability. Access governance should include provisioning, role changes, reviews, and timely removal of unnecessary permissions.

Question 334.

Which firewall capability can help block access to websites known for phishing or malware?

1. Static routing
   2. Link aggregation
   3. DHCP relay
   4. URL filtering

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

URL filtering controls web access according to categories, reputation, and security policy. It can help prevent users from reaching known phishing pages, malware-hosting sites, and other risky destinations. Static routing determines traffic paths, link aggregation combines interfaces, and DHCP relay forwards address-assignment messages. URL filtering is stronger when combined with DNS security, threat prevention, endpoint security, and user awareness.

Question 335.

Which attack technique attempts to discover reachable services on a target by testing multiple network ports?

1. Data classification
   2. File hashing
   3. Port scanning
   4. Backup rotation

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Port scanning probes systems to identify which network ports and services are reachable. Attackers may use this during reconnaissance to locate potential targets, although administrators also use scanning legitimately for inventory and security testing. Data classification organizes information, file hashing verifies integrity, and backup rotation manages recovery copies. Firewalls and service hardening can reduce exposure by allowing only required services to be reachable.

Question 336.

Which statement best describes endpoint isolation?

1. It provides the user with more privileges.
   2. It limits network communication from a compromised endpoint while investigation continues.
   3. It automatically deletes every file.
   4. It disables all monitoring.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Endpoint isolation is a containment technique that restricts the compromised device’s ability to communicate with other systems or external infrastructure. This helps reduce lateral movement, command-and-control activity, and data theft while analysts investigate. Isolation should preserve useful security visibility where possible and should follow incident-response procedures. Granting more privileges or deleting files indiscriminately would not be appropriate containment actions.

Question 337.

Which security measure best helps recover from corruption of critical data?

1. Protected and tested backups
   2. Shared administrator credentials
   3. Open guest access
   4. Disabled logging

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Protected and tested backups provide recoverable copies of data when production information becomes corrupted, deleted, encrypted, or otherwise unusable. Organizations should monitor backup completion and regularly test restoration procedures. Shared credentials and open access create security risk, while disabled logging reduces visibility. Backups support resilience and availability but should be combined with access controls, redundancy, endpoint protection, and incident-response planning.

Question 338.

Which authentication pattern is most suspicious?

1. A user logs in from the usual office device.
   2. A scheduled account review occurs.
   3. A user completes a normal password change.
   4. A privileged account succeeds after repeated failed attempts from an unusual source.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A successful privileged login following repeated failed attempts from an unusual source may indicate credential compromise. Analysts should investigate the source, device, authentication factors, subsequent actions, and related events. Routine logins and planned account changes are generally expected. Privileged accounts deserve additional monitoring because compromise may allow an attacker to change security configurations or access sensitive systems.

Question 339.

Which cloud-security concept explains that both the customer and cloud provider have defined security duties?

1. Open trust model
   2. Anonymous access model
   3. Shared responsibility model
   4. Flat authorization model

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The shared responsibility model divides security duties between the cloud provider and customer. The provider may secure physical facilities and foundational infrastructure, while the customer may remain responsible for identities, data, operating systems, applications, and configurations depending on the service model. Understanding these responsibilities helps prevent security gaps caused by assuming that the provider automatically manages every security control.

Question 340.

Which strategy provides the strongest protection against a wide range of enterprise cyber threats?

1. Rely on a single perimeter firewall.
   2. Combine identity controls, segmentation, application-aware security, endpoint protection, threat prevention, monitoring, backups, and incident response.
   3. Disable security updates after installation.
   4. Trust all internal systems automatically.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A layered security strategy provides multiple opportunities to prevent, detect, contain, and recover from attacks. Identity controls protect accounts, segmentation limits lateral movement, application-aware policies control traffic, endpoint security monitors host behavior, and threat prevention blocks malicious activity. Logging supports investigations, while backups and incident response improve resilience. Depending on one firewall or automatically trusting internal systems leaves unnecessary gaps in the organization’s defenses.