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Question 381.

Which security principle helps limit the impact of a compromised employee account by restricting what the account can access?

1. Least privilege
   2. Open trust
   3. Shared administration
   4. Anonymous access

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Least privilege limits users, applications, and systems to only the permissions required for legitimate work. If an employee account is compromised, the attacker can reach only the resources that account is authorized to use rather than automatically gaining broad access. Open trust and anonymous access increase exposure, while shared administration reduces accountability. Least privilege is commonly supported through role-based permissions, access reviews, separate privileged accounts, and removal of unnecessary access after role changes.

Question 382.

Which Palo Alto Networks capability helps administrators create policy based on the actual application generating traffic rather than only the port number?

1. DHCP relay
   2. Static routing
   3. VLAN tagging
   4. Application identification

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Application identification recognizes the application associated with network traffic even when multiple applications use the same port or dynamically select ports. This allows administrators to create more precise rules based on business applications rather than broad port access. DHCP relay forwards DHCP messages, static routing determines packet paths, and VLAN tagging identifies Layer 2 network membership. Application-aware controls provide better visibility and can reduce the risk created by relying only on traditional port-based filtering.

Question 383.

Which attack uses fraudulent voice calls to trick a victim into revealing credentials or sensitive information?

1. Port scanning
   2. Packet fragmentation
   3. Vishing
   4. Data replication

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Vishing is a social-engineering attack conducted through voice calls. An attacker may impersonate a bank, technical-support representative, manager, or other trusted person in order to obtain passwords, verification codes, payment information, or other sensitive data. Port scanning probes network services, packet fragmentation divides packets, and data replication creates additional copies of information. Organizations can reduce vishing risk through awareness training, verification procedures, multi-factor authentication, and policies that discourage sharing sensitive information over unexpected calls.

Question 384.

Which statement best describes the function of a firewall security rule?

1. It automatically repairs endpoint software.
   2. It determines how matching network traffic should be handled.
   3. It replaces routing completely.
   4. It creates cloud user accounts.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A firewall security rule determines whether matching traffic is allowed, denied, logged, inspected, or otherwise controlled. Rules may evaluate factors such as source and destination zones, addresses, users, applications, and services. A firewall still requires routing to determine where packets should be forwarded. Security rules do not create cloud accounts or repair endpoint software. Good policy design follows least privilege and includes clear documentation, appropriate logging, and regular review.

Question 385.

Which action most directly reduces the risk associated with unnecessary services on a firewall or server?

1. Disable services that are not required.
   2. Add more shared administrator accounts.
   3. Remove all authentication controls.
   4. Disable logging.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Disabling unnecessary services reduces the attack surface because fewer network-accessible components are available for attackers to target. This is a core part of system hardening. Shared administrator accounts reduce accountability, removing authentication creates severe risk, and disabling logs makes attacks harder to detect and investigate. Hardening should also include secure configuration, timely patching, least privilege, and regular review of enabled services and features.

Question 386.

Which protocol is commonly used for secure remote command-line management of network devices?

1. HTTP
   2. FTP
   3. Telnet
   4. SSH

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and is commonly used to administer servers, routers, firewalls, and other network devices. It typically uses TCP port 22. Telnet provides similar terminal functionality but normally does not encrypt credentials or session data. HTTP is primarily used for web communication, while FTP is used for file transfer. SSH should be combined with strong authentication, restricted management access, and logging to further protect administrative sessions.

Question 387.

Which security capability can help detect malicious files that do not yet match a known signature by observing their behavior?

1. DNS forwarding
   2. Static NAT
   3. Sandboxing
   4. Route aggregation

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Sandboxing analyzes suspicious content in an isolated environment and observes behaviors such as process creation, file changes, persistence activity, and network communication. This can help identify previously unknown or modified malware that may not match an existing signature. DNS forwarding handles name-resolution requests, static NAT translates addresses, and route aggregation simplifies routing information. Sandboxing is most effective when combined with endpoint security, threat prevention, file inspection, and security monitoring.

Question 388.

Which statement best describes authorization?

1. It verifies the identity of a user.
   2. It determines what an authenticated user is allowed to access or perform.
   3. It assigns an IP address.
   4. It synchronizes system time.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Authorization determines what an authenticated identity is permitted to access or do. Authentication occurs first and verifies identity, while authorization applies permissions afterward. DHCP is commonly used to assign IP configuration information, and NTP synchronizes system time. Strong security requires both reliable authentication and appropriate authorization because verifying a user does not mean that user should automatically have access to every application or administrative function.

Question 389.

Which security objective is most directly supported by preventing unauthorized modification of audit logs?

1. Integrity
   2. Availability
   3. Scalability
   4. Portability

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Integrity ensures that information remains accurate and is not changed without authorization. Protecting audit logs from alteration is important because attackers may try to modify or delete evidence of their activity. Access controls, centralized logging, secure retention, and cryptographic verification can help protect log integrity. Availability focuses on keeping systems accessible, scalability concerns growth, and portability concerns moving software or information between environments.

Question 390.

Which situation most strongly indicates a possible denial-of-service attack?

1. A user completes a normal password reset.
   2. A scheduled backup finishes successfully.
   3. An approved administrator updates a security rule.
   4. A public service becomes unavailable while receiving unusually high traffic.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A denial-of-service attack attempts to exhaust network bandwidth, processing capacity, connection tables, or other resources so legitimate users cannot access a service. Unusually high traffic combined with service disruption is a strong indicator. Password resets, backups, and approved changes are normal operational activities. Mitigation strategies can include filtering, rate controls, redundant infrastructure, upstream protection, traffic scrubbing, and incident-response planning.

Question 391.

Which Palo Alto Networks log type is most useful for determining whether malicious exploit traffic was detected?

1. Configuration log
   2. System log
   3. Threat log
   4. Hardware inventory

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Threat logs provide information about malicious or suspicious activity detected by security inspection features. Depending on configuration, they may show exploit attempts, malware detections, source and destination information, applications, severity, and the action taken. Configuration logs focus on administrator changes, while system logs describe operational events. Threat logs are valuable during investigations because they help analysts determine what type of malicious activity was observed and how the security platform responded.

Question 392.

Which statement best describes source network address translation?

1. It encrypts the user’s traffic automatically.
   2. It changes the source IP address of matching traffic as it passes through a firewall or router.
   3. It authenticates the user.
   4. It scans endpoint processes for malware.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Source NAT modifies the source IP address of traffic as it passes through a network device. A common use is translating private internal addresses to a public address for internet access. Source NAT does not authenticate users, monitor endpoint processes, or automatically encrypt traffic. NAT and security policy perform different functions: NAT changes addressing information, while security policy determines whether the session should be permitted.

Question 393.

Which practice best reduces the risk of privilege accumulation when employees change positions within an organization?

1. Conduct regular access reviews and remove unnecessary permissions.
   2. Preserve every permission permanently.
   3. Grant all employees administrator access.
   4. Disable identity logging.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Regular access reviews identify permissions that are no longer needed because a user has changed roles, projects, or responsibilities. Removing outdated access supports least privilege and reduces the potential impact of credential compromise. Keeping all permissions permanently can cause privilege accumulation, while broad administrator access creates unnecessary exposure. Identity lifecycle management should include onboarding, role changes, periodic certification, and timely removal of access when employment or business needs change.

Question 394.

Which Palo Alto Networks security feature is most appropriate for blocking access to websites known to host phishing or malware?

1. Static routing
   2. Link aggregation
   3. DHCP relay
   4. URL filtering

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

URL filtering allows web destinations to be controlled according to categories, reputation, and organizational policy. Known phishing sites, malware-hosting pages, and other risky destinations can be blocked before users interact with them. Static routing determines packet paths, link aggregation combines interfaces, and DHCP relay forwards address-assignment messages. URL filtering is often combined with DNS security, threat prevention, user identification, and endpoint controls to provide stronger web protection.

Question 395.

Which security activity identifies weaknesses such as missing patches, insecure settings, or exposed services before they are exploited?

1. Load balancing
   2. Data replication
   3. Vulnerability assessment
   4. File compression

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses in systems, applications, devices, and configurations that attackers could potentially exploit. Findings may include missing patches, weak services, outdated software, or insecure configurations. Load balancing distributes workloads, data replication creates copies of information, and file compression reduces storage size. Vulnerability assessment is most useful when it is part of an ongoing management process that includes prioritization, remediation, mitigation, and verification.

Question 396.

Which statement best describes endpoint isolation during incident response?

1. It automatically gives the endpoint administrator privileges.
   2. It restricts a compromised device’s network communication while investigation continues.
   3. It removes all event logs from the device.
   4. It permanently deletes all files.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Endpoint isolation is a containment measure used to limit communication from a compromised device. It can help prevent lateral movement, command-and-control traffic, malware propagation, and data theft while analysts investigate the incident. Isolation should preserve useful visibility where possible and follow established incident-response procedures. Granting additional privileges or destroying logs would increase risk or remove valuable evidence.

Question 397.

Which control provides the most direct recovery capability if ransomware encrypts critical production files?

1. Protected and tested backups
   2. Shared administrator credentials
   3. Anonymous access
   4. Disabled endpoint protection

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Protected and tested backups provide clean copies of critical data that can be restored after ransomware encryption or other destructive incidents. Backups should be isolated or otherwise protected so an attacker cannot easily encrypt or delete them using compromised production credentials. Restoration procedures should be tested regularly. Shared administrator credentials, anonymous access, and disabled endpoint protection all increase risk rather than improve recovery capability.

Question 398.

Which authentication event should receive the highest investigation priority?

1. A user signs in from the usual corporate device.
   2. A routine password change occurs.
   3. A scheduled access review is completed.
   4. A privileged account successfully authenticates from an unusual source after many failed attempts.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A successful privileged login from an unusual source following numerous failed attempts may indicate that an attacker obtained valid credentials. Analysts should investigate the source address, device information, authentication factors, subsequent actions, and related events. Routine logins, password changes, and access reviews are expected. Privileged accounts require additional monitoring because successful compromise can provide broad administrative access to systems and security controls.

Question 399.

Which cloud-security concept explains why customers remain responsible for some security controls even when workloads are hosted by a cloud provider?

1. Open trust model
   2. Anonymous authorization model
   3. Shared responsibility model
   4. Flat networking model

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

The shared responsibility model divides security duties between the cloud provider and customer. The provider may secure physical infrastructure and foundational services, while the customer may remain responsible for identities, data, applications, operating systems, or configuration depending on the service model. Understanding this division helps prevent gaps caused by assuming that the provider automatically manages every security responsibility.

Question 400.

Which strategy provides the strongest overall cybersecurity posture for a modern organization?

1. Depend entirely on one perimeter firewall.
   2. Combine identity security, least privilege, segmentation, application-aware controls, endpoint protection, threat prevention, monitoring, backups, and incident response.
   3. Trust every internal user and device automatically.
   4. Stop applying security updates after initial deployment.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

A strong cybersecurity strategy uses multiple complementary controls. Identity security and least privilege reduce unauthorized access, segmentation limits lateral movement, application-aware policies improve network control, endpoint protection monitors host behavior, and threat prevention blocks malicious activity. Logging supports detection and investigation, while backups and incident-response capabilities improve resilience. Relying on a single security device or permanently trusting internal activity creates unnecessary gaps. Defense in depth provides multiple opportunities to prevent, detect, contain, and recover from cyberattacks.