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Question 341.

Choose the option that best corrects the underlined portion of the sentence:
Each of the paintings in the gallery have been restored carefully.

1. has been restored
   2. have been restored
   3. were restored
   4. restore

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The subject of the sentence is “Each,” which is singular. The phrase “of the paintings in the gallery” gives additional information but does not change the number of the subject. Therefore, the singular verb phrase “has been restored” is correct. Choice 2 incorrectly agrees with the plural noun “paintings.” Choice 3 changes the tense and does not preserve the original structure, while Choice 4 is grammatically incorrect. ACT English often places a plural noun close to the verb to distract from the true subject. A useful strategy is to simplify the sentence: “Each has been restored carefully.” Once the modifying phrase is removed, the correct agreement becomes clear.

Question 342.

Which sentence is the clearest and most concise revision?
The manager personally gave her own individual approval to the proposal.

1. The manager personally gave her own approval to the proposal.
   2. The manager gave individual approval personally to the proposal.
   3. The manager gave her own individual approval to the proposal personally.
   4. The manager approved the proposal.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Choice 4 states the idea directly and removes several unnecessary words. The original phrase “personally gave her own individual approval” repeats the same concept in multiple ways. The simple verb “approved” conveys the essential meaning without loss. Choices 1, 2, and 3 retain redundant wording or use awkward phrasing. ACT English frequently tests concision by presenting several grammatically acceptable choices that differ in efficiency. The strongest answer usually communicates the same meaning with fewer unnecessary words. When a long noun phrase can be replaced by a precise verb, the shorter construction is often preferable.

Question 343.

Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence:
The student had one concern ___ whether the experiment would produce enough data.

1. concern, whether
   2. concern; whether
   3. concern: whether
   4. concern whether

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A colon is the best choice because the words before the blank form a complete sentence: “The student had one concern.” The words after the colon explain what that concern was. Choice 3 therefore correctly introduces an explanation. Choice 1 uses only a comma, which is too weak for this structure. Choice 2 uses a semicolon, but the material after it is not an independent clause. Choice 4 omits punctuation and makes the relationship less clear. ACT English often tests colons in situations where the second part defines or elaborates on an idea in the first complete clause.

Question 344.

Choose the transition that best completes the paragraph:
The city planted hundreds of trees along streets with very little shade. Summer sidewalk temperatures were lower in those areas the following year. ___, officials approved funding for additional tree planting.

1. In contrast
   2. As a result
   3. Nevertheless
   4. For example

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The decision to fund additional tree planting follows logically from the lower sidewalk temperatures. Therefore, “As a result” is the most appropriate transition because it signals cause and effect. “In contrast” would introduce an opposing idea, which is not present. “Nevertheless” would suggest that the decision occurred despite something negative or unexpected, but the temperature reduction supports the decision. “For example” would introduce an illustration rather than a consequence. ACT transition questions are easiest when you first identify the relationship in your own words. Here, tree planting produced a beneficial result, so officials expanded the program.

Question 345.

Which sentence best supports the writer’s goal of emphasizing the scale of a volunteer cleanup effort?

1. More than 700 volunteers removed 12 tons of trash from the riverbank in one weekend.
   2. The cleanup began near a public parking area.
   3. Volunteers wore gloves and bright safety vests.
   4. The river passes through several neighborhoods.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 directly emphasizes scale by providing specific numbers for both participation and the amount of trash removed. More than 700 volunteers and 12 tons of trash clearly demonstrate that the cleanup was a large effort. Choice 2 describes location, Choice 3 describes clothing, and Choice 4 gives geographic context. Those details may be useful in a broader passage but do not directly support the goal of showing scale. ACT rhetorical-purpose questions often reward precise numerical evidence when the writer wants to emphasize size, speed, popularity, cost, or growth. The strongest choice should directly prove the stated point rather than merely relate to the same subject.

Question 346.

The equations x+y=18 and x-y=6 form a system. What is the value of x?

1. 6
   2. 9
   3. 10
   4. 12

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Add the two equations: (x+y)+(x-y)=18+6. The y terms cancel, leaving 2x=24. Divide by 2 to get x=12. Therefore, Choice 4 is correct. You can check by finding y: substituting 12 into x+y=18 gives y=6, and then 12-6=6, which satisfies the second equation. ACT Math system-of-equations questions often become much faster when one variable can be eliminated immediately. Before using substitution, check whether adding or subtracting the equations will cancel one variable with minimal work.

Question 347.

If g(x)=3x2+2, what is g(3)?

1. 11
   2. 21
   3. 29
   4. 35

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Substitute 3 for x: g(3)=3(32)+2. First calculate 32=9. Then multiply by 3 to get 27 and add 2: 27+2=29. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. A common error is multiplying 3 by 3 before squaring or forgetting the order of operations. ACT function questions often test basic substitution rather than advanced function theory. The notation g(3) simply means to evaluate the formula when x equals 3. Substitute the value carefully and then follow exponent, multiplication, and addition rules in the correct order.

Question 348.

A car travels 180 miles in 3 hours at a constant rate. At that same rate, how far will it travel in 5 hours?

1. 240 miles
   2. 300 miles
   3. 360 miles
   4. 450 miles

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

First find the car’s speed: 1803=60 miles per hour. At the same rate for 5 hours, the car travels 605=300 miles. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 would correspond to only 4 hours at 60 miles per hour, while Choices 3 and 4 use larger rates or times than the problem gives. ACT rate questions often use the relationship distance = rate × time. When a problem says a rate is constant, calculate that rate first and then use it with the new time or distance.

Question 349.

What is the midpoint of the segment with endpoints (4,2) and (12,10)?

1. (8,6)
   2. (6,8)
   3. (16,12)
   4. (4,4)

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

To find the midpoint, average the corresponding coordinates. The x-coordinate is (4+12)/2=16/2=8. The y-coordinate is (2+10)/2=12/2=6. Therefore, the midpoint is (8,6), Choice 1. Choice 3 simply adds the coordinates without dividing by 2, while Choices 2 and 4 do not correctly average both coordinates. ACT coordinate-geometry questions often involve slope, distance, or midpoint. For midpoint problems, remember that the answer must lie exactly halfway between the two endpoints in both the horizontal and vertical directions.

Question 350.

A jar contains 4 yellow beads, 5 black beads, and 1 white bead. If one bead is selected at random, what is the probability that it is black?

1. 110
   2. 25
   3. 45
   4. 12

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

There are 4+5+1=10 beads in total. Five of the beads are black, so the probability of selecting a black bead is 5/10, which simplifies to 1/2. Therefore, Choice 4 is correct. Choice 1 corresponds to the single white bead. Choice 2 would represent 4 favorable outcomes out of 10, and Choice 3 is too large because only half the beads are black. ACT probability questions generally use favorable outcomes divided by total equally likely outcomes. Count the total sample space carefully before forming the probability fraction.

Question 351.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Daniel had always thought historical research meant reading old textbooks and summarizing what other historians had written. During a summer internship at a local archive, however, he examined handwritten letters, business records, photographs, and newspaper clippings from the 1920s. He noticed that different sources sometimes described the same event in conflicting ways. Instead of seeing this as a problem, Daniel began comparing the sources to understand why the accounts differed. By the end of the internship, he viewed historical research as an investigation rather than simple information gathering.

Which statement best describes Daniel’s change in perspective?

1. He realizes that historical research involves evaluating and comparing primary sources.
   2. He decides that textbooks should never be used.
   3. He concludes that conflicting sources are useless.
   4. He loses interest in researching the past.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Daniel begins with a narrow view of historical research as summarizing existing books. His archive experience shows him that researchers must examine different sources, compare conflicting accounts, and interpret why perspectives differ. Choice 1 accurately captures this broader understanding. Choice 2 is too extreme because the passage does not reject textbooks. Choice 3 contradicts Daniel’s response to conflicting accounts; he finds them useful for investigation. Choice 4 is also unsupported because his interest appears to deepen. ACT Reading character-development questions often ask how experience changes a person’s understanding of a subject. Look for the contrast between the opening assumption and the final realization.

Question 352.

Based on the passage in Question 351, why does the author mention that some sources described the same event differently?

1. To prove that one source must always be false
   2. To show that Daniel disliked working in the archive
   3. To suggest that historical records should be ignored
   4. To explain why Daniel began comparing and evaluating evidence more carefully

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

The disagreement among sources is important because it changes Daniel’s approach to research. Instead of simply collecting information, he begins comparing accounts and asking why they differ. Choice 4 therefore best explains the purpose of the detail. Choice 1 oversimplifies the issue because different accounts can reflect perspective, context, or incomplete information rather than deliberate falsehood. Choice 2 contradicts Daniel’s growing engagement, and Choice 3 is the opposite of what he learns. ACT Reading detail-purpose questions often ask how a specific event or observation contributes to a character’s development or to the author’s central point.

Question 353.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Some cities are creating small “pocket parks” on vacant lots that are too small for traditional parks. These spaces may include benches, shade trees, native plants, or small play areas. Because they can be located close to homes and businesses, pocket parks may give residents access to green space without requiring a large parcel of land. However, long-term maintenance and accessibility still need to be considered.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Pocket parks can provide useful green space on small sites but still require planning and maintenance.
   2. Every vacant lot should become a park.
   3. Pocket parks are always larger than traditional parks.
   4. Small parks eliminate the need for larger public spaces.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage explains that pocket parks can turn small vacant lots into useful green spaces close to where people live and work. It also notes that accessibility and long-term maintenance must be considered. Choice 1 captures both the benefit and the practical limitation. Choice 2 is too broad because not every vacant lot will be suitable. Choice 3 directly contradicts the description of pocket parks as small. Choice 4 exaggerates their role because the passage never suggests that larger parks are unnecessary. ACT main-idea questions often include choices that convert a limited strategy into a universal solution. The best answer reflects the overall balance of the passage.

Question 354.

Why does the author mention benches, shade trees, native plants, and play areas in the passage from Question 353?

1. To prove that every pocket park contains the same features
   2. To provide examples of amenities that small parks may include
   3. To argue that large parks should remove these features
   4. To show that pocket parks require no maintenance

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The listed features are examples of what planners might include in a pocket park. They help readers understand how a small space can still serve recreational, social, and environmental purposes. Choice 2 therefore correctly identifies the author’s purpose. Choice 1 is too absolute because the passage says the parks “may include” those features, not that every park contains all of them. Choice 3 is unrelated, and Choice 4 contradicts the statement that long-term maintenance must be considered. ACT Reading questions about lists often ask whether the list provides examples, evidence, contrast, or explanation. Here, it clearly illustrates the possible uses of a small park.

Question 355.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 353?

1. Pocket parks may be especially useful in areas where large parcels of land are difficult to obtain.
   2. Pocket parks require no public funding.
   3. Every resident prefers small parks to large parks.
   4. Pocket parks can be built without considering accessibility.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage emphasizes that pocket parks can be created on vacant lots too small for traditional parks. This supports the inference that they may be particularly useful in dense areas where large pieces of land are limited or expensive. Choice 1 is therefore reasonable. Choice 2 is unsupported because the passage does not discuss funding. Choice 3 makes an absolute claim about personal preference, and Choice 4 directly contradicts the statement that accessibility must be considered. ACT inference questions reward cautious conclusions that follow from the text without adding unsupported assumptions. Look for answers that extend the author’s reasoning only slightly rather than making broad new claims.

Question 356.

A water sample contained 24 milligrams of a substance and later contained 30 milligrams. What was the percent increase?

1. 6%
   2. 25%
   3. 30%
   4. 80%

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The amount increased by 30-24=6 milligrams. Percent increase is calculated using the original amount as the denominator: 6/24=0.25. Converting to a percentage gives 25%, so Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 uses the raw increase as if it were already a percentage. Choice 3 confuses the final value with the percent increase, and Choice 4 results from an incorrect calculation. ACT Science sometimes requires straightforward percentage calculations. Always identify the starting value first, because percent increase compares the amount of change with the original amount.

Question 357.

A researcher tests whether a coating reduces water evaporation. Two identical containers receive equal amounts of water. One container is coated, and the other is not. Why is the uncoated container necessary?

1. It provides a control for comparing evaporation with the coated container.
   2. It guarantees that both containers lose the same amount of water.
   3. It changes the coating variable in both groups.
   4. It increases the temperature of the experiment.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The uncoated container serves as a control condition. It shows how much water evaporates without the treatment, allowing the researcher to compare that result with the coated container. If evaporation is lower in the coated container, the difference can be evaluated relative to the control. Choice 2 is incorrect because the purpose is to determine whether evaporation differs. Choice 3 misunderstands the design because only one group receives the coating. Choice 4 is unrelated unless temperature is specifically changed, which the experiment does not state. ACT Science often asks why control groups are important: they provide a baseline for comparison.

Question 358.

An experiment measured plant growth at four fertilizer levels:
0 g: 9 cm
5 g: 15 cm
10 g: 21 cm
15 g: 18 cm
Which statement best describes the results?

1. Plant growth decreased at every fertilizer level.
   2. Plant growth increased through 10 g and then decreased at 15 g.
   3. The greatest growth occurred with 0 g of fertilizer.
   4. Fertilizer amount had no relationship with growth.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Plant growth increases from 9 cm at 0 g to 15 cm at 5 g and 21 cm at 10 g. At 15 g, growth decreases to 18 cm. Therefore, Choice 2 correctly summarizes the trend. Choice 1 reverses the initial pattern. Choice 3 is incorrect because the 0 g group has the lowest growth. Choice 4 ignores the clear differences among treatments. ACT Science often includes data that show an optimum rather than a continuous increase. Read every value before choosing an answer, and avoid assuming that increasing the independent variable will always produce more of the dependent variable.

Question 359.

Scientist A argues that a decline in a bird population is mainly caused by loss of nesting habitat. Scientist B argues that reduced insect abundance is the main cause. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist A?

1. Bird numbers decline most where nesting habitat is removed while insect abundance remains relatively stable.
   2. Insect populations fall in several nearby areas.
   3. The birds migrate during part of the year.
   4. Some nesting sites are located near water.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Scientist A proposes that loss of nesting habitat is the primary cause. Choice 1 directly supports that explanation because bird numbers fall where nesting habitat is removed while insect abundance remains stable. This strengthens the habitat hypothesis while reducing food availability as a competing explanation. Choice 2 would instead support Scientist B. Choices 3 and 4 provide background information but do not directly test either proposed cause. ACT conflicting-viewpoints questions are easiest when you identify the main variable in each scientist’s explanation and then choose evidence that supports one factor while holding the competing factor relatively constant.

Question 360.

Researchers want to test whether a new study method improves quiz scores. Which experimental design would provide the strongest evidence?

1. Give the new method to older students and the old method to younger students.
   2. Use similar groups of students under the same conditions, changing only the study method.
   3. Give one group more study time and the new method.
   4. Let each group take quizzes of different difficulty.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 provides the strongest design because the groups are kept as similar as possible while only the study method is changed. This makes study method the main independent variable and allows differences in quiz scores to be interpreted more confidently. Choice 1 changes both age and study method. Choice 3 changes both study time and study method. Choice 4 changes quiz difficulty, creating another major variable. ACT Science often tests experimental validity. The strongest experiments isolate one factor at a time while controlling other important conditions so that alternative explanations for the results are minimized.