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Question 101.

Choose the option that best corrects the underlined portion of the sentence:
Neither the director nor the actors was prepared for the sudden power failure during rehearsal.

1. was prepared
   2. were prepared
   3. has prepared
   4. prepares

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

With a neither…nor construction, the verb generally agrees with the subject closest to it. Here, the noun nearest the verb is actors, which is plural. Therefore, were prepared is correct. Choice 1 incorrectly uses the singular verb “was.” Choice 3 changes the meaning and tense, while Choice 4 is inappropriate because the sentence describes a completed past situation. ACT English often tests agreement in paired constructions such as “either…or” and “neither…nor.” When the subjects differ in number, look at the one closest to the verb. In this sentence, “actors were prepared” is the correct grammatical relationship, even though the earlier noun “director” is singular.

Question 102.

Which sentence is the clearest and most concise revision?
In order to successfully complete the assignment, the students were required to work together collaboratively as a team.

1. To complete the assignment successfully, the students had to work together.
   2. In order to successfully complete the assignment, the students were required to collaborate together as a team.
   3. The students, in order to complete the assignment successfully, had to work collaboratively together.
   4. Successful completion of the assignment required the students to work together collaboratively as a team with one another.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Choice 1 expresses the full idea without unnecessary repetition. “Work together,” “collaboratively,” “as a team,” and “with one another” all communicate essentially the same concept, so using several of them makes the sentence redundant. “In order to” can also usually be shortened to “to” without changing meaning. Choice 2 still repeats “collaborate together,” while Choice 3 combines “collaboratively” with “together.” Choice 4 is especially wordy. ACT English values concise, direct expression when meaning and grammatical correctness are preserved. When several answer choices seem correct, look for repeated concepts and unnecessary phrases. The strongest revision usually communicates the complete meaning with the fewest words while remaining natural and precise.

Question 103.

Choose the best punctuation for the sentence:
The scientist recorded one surprising observation ___ the plants exposed to less light had grown taller.

1. observation, the
   2. observation; the
   3. observation: the
   4. observation the

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A colon is the best choice because the clause before it is complete: “The scientist recorded one surprising observation.” The words after the colon explain exactly what that observation was. Choice 3 therefore clearly expresses the relationship between the two parts. Choice 1 creates a comma splice by joining two independent clauses with only a comma. Choice 2 uses a semicolon, which can technically join independent clauses, but the colon is more precise because the second clause explains the first. Choice 4 creates a run-on sentence. On ACT English, use a colon after a complete statement when what follows provides an explanation, example, list, or clarification. Always confirm that the words before the colon could stand alone as a complete sentence.

Question 104.

Choose the transition that best completes the paragraph:
The school originally planned to replace its entire heating system. An inspection showed that only two damaged components needed replacement. ___, the school completed the repairs for far less money than expected.

1. As a result
   2. Nevertheless
   3. In contrast
   4. For example

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The inspection revealed that the school did not need to replace the entire heating system, so the repair cost was much lower than originally expected. As a result accurately shows this cause-and-effect relationship. “Nevertheless” would signal an unexpected contrast, which is not the relationship presented. “In contrast” also suggests opposing ideas rather than a direct consequence. “For example” would introduce an illustration rather than an outcome. ACT transition questions require you to identify how one sentence relates to another. A helpful strategy is to ignore the transition choices at first and state the relationship yourself. Here, the inspection found a smaller problem, therefore the school spent less money. That clearly calls for a result transition.

Question 105.

Which sentence best supports the writer’s goal of emphasizing the popularity of a newly opened public park?

1. The park contains several species of native trees.
   2. More than 12,000 visitors entered the park during its first two weekends.
   3. The park’s main entrance faces east.
   4. Construction of the park began three years ago.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Choice 2 directly demonstrates popularity by providing a specific attendance figure over a short period. More than 12,000 visitors in the first two weekends is concrete evidence that many people wanted to use the new park. Choice 1 describes landscaping, Choice 3 gives directional information, and Choice 4 concerns the construction timeline. None of those details directly establishes popularity. ACT rhetorical-purpose questions ask you to choose the sentence that best accomplishes a stated goal. Strong answers often include measurable evidence when the goal involves popularity, size, growth, cost, or speed. Rather than selecting a sentence merely related to the topic, identify which option most directly proves the particular idea the writer wants to emphasize.

Question 106.

If 8x-6=50, what is the value of x?

1. 5
   2. 6
   3. 7
   4. 8

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Begin with 8x-6=50. Add 6 to both sides to isolate the term containing x: 8x=56. Then divide both sides by 8 to get x=7. Therefore, Choice 3 is correct. You can check the answer by substituting it into the original equation: 8(7)-6=56-6=50. Choice 1 gives 34, Choice 2 gives 42, and Choice 4 gives 58. ACT Math often includes basic algebra that rewards careful execution rather than advanced techniques. Work methodically, perform the same operation on both sides, and check your result when the arithmetic is simple enough to verify quickly.

Question 107.

A pair of shoes originally costs $150. The price is reduced by 30%. What is the sale price?

1. $45
   2. $95
   3. $105
   4. $120

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A 30% discount means the buyer pays 70% of the original price. Multiply 150 by 0.70: 1500.70=105. Therefore, the sale price is $105, Choice 3. Another method is to calculate the discount first: 0.30150=45, then subtract 150-45=105. Choice 1 is the amount of the discount rather than the final price. Choice 4 would represent only a 20% discount, while Choice 2 does not match the stated percentage. ACT percentage problems frequently include the amount changed as a distractor. Always check whether the problem asks for the reduction itself or the final amount after the reduction.

Question 108.

The area of a rectangle is 96 square units. If its width is 8 units, what is its length?

1. 10 units
   2. 12 units
   3. 14 units
   4. 16 units

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The area of a rectangle is given by A=LW. Substitute the known values: 96=L8. Divide both sides by 8 to get L=12. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Choice 1 would produce an area of 80 square units, Choice 3 would produce 112, and Choice 4 would produce 128. ACT geometry questions often require rearranging a familiar formula rather than simply substituting all known dimensions. It helps to write the formula first, replace the known values, and then solve for the missing quantity. Also remember that the area is measured in square units, while length and width themselves are measured in ordinary linear units.

Question 109.

The mean of 5 numbers is 36. Four of the numbers are 28, 34, 39, and 41. What is the fifth number?

1. 36
   2. 38
   3. 40
   4. 42

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

If the average of five numbers is 36, their total sum must be 365=180. Add the four known numbers: 28+34+39+41=142. Subtract this total from 180: 180-142=38. Therefore, the fifth number is 38, Choice 2. Choice 1 may seem attractive because it equals the mean, but an individual number does not have to equal the average. ACT average questions are often easiest when you first convert the average into the total required sum. Then subtract the values already known. Remember: mean = total ÷ number of values, so total = mean × number of values.

Question 110.

A right triangle has legs measuring 6 units and 8 units. What is the length of the hypotenuse?

1. 10 units
   2. 12 units
   3. 14 units
   4. 16 units

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Use the Pythagorean theorem: a2+b2=c2, where c is the hypotenuse. Substitute the two leg lengths: 62+82=c2. This gives 36+64=100, so c2=100. Taking the positive square root gives c=10. Therefore, Choice 1 is correct. This is also a scaled version of the common 3-4-5 triangle. Recognizing Pythagorean triples can save time on the ACT, but using the theorem is always reliable. Remember that the hypotenuse is opposite the right angle and must be longer than either leg, which can also help eliminate unreasonable choices.

Question 111.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
For most of high school, Priya avoided joining the debate team because she assumed successful debaters had to speak quickly and confidently without hesitation. When a friend persuaded her to attend a practice, however, Priya noticed that the strongest participants spent much of their time researching evidence and planning responses. She joined the team and discovered that careful preparation suited her naturally methodical style. By the end of the season, she had become one of the team’s most reliable competitors, though she still preferred preparation to improvisation.

Which statement best describes Priya’s change in perspective?

1. She realizes that debate can reward careful preparation as well as confident speaking.
   2. She decides that research is unnecessary in debate.
   3. She concludes that only naturally fast speakers can succeed.
   4. She loses interest in competing after joining the team.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Priya initially assumes that debate success depends mainly on fast, confident speaking, which discourages her from participating. After observing a practice, she realizes that research and preparation are also important. This discovery fits her methodical personality and allows her to succeed. Choice 1 accurately captures that change. Choice 2 contradicts the passage because research is shown to be essential. Choice 3 restates Priya’s original mistaken assumption rather than her later understanding. Choice 4 is false because she becomes a reliable competitor. ACT Reading questions about changes in perspective often require comparing the character’s initial belief with the conclusion reached after an experience. Look for contrast markers such as “however,” which often signal the turning point.

Question 112.

Based on the passage in Question 111, why does the author mention that Priya “still preferred preparation to improvisation”?

1. To show that Priya became successful without completely changing her natural working style
   2. To prove that Priya disliked the debate team
   3. To suggest that she stopped researching arguments
   4. To show that improvisation was prohibited in competition

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The detail shows that Priya’s success does not require her to become a completely different person. She develops as a debater while continuing to rely on careful preparation, which already matches her methodical personality. Choice 1 therefore best explains the detail. Choice 2 is incorrect because Priya remains on the team and becomes a dependable competitor. Choice 3 contradicts the passage’s emphasis on preparation. Choice 4 is unsupported; nothing indicates that improvisation is prohibited. ACT Reading questions about the function of a detail often require understanding how that detail contributes to characterization. Here, the final sentence reinforces the idea that Priya succeeds by discovering that debate includes skills she already values.

Question 113.

Read the passage and answer the question.

Passage:
Some farmers are planting strips of wildflowers along the edges of crop fields. These strips provide food and habitat for bees and other pollinating insects. Researchers have found that, under certain conditions, nearby crops may receive more visits from pollinators as a result. Wildflower strips can also support other beneficial insects, although their effectiveness depends on plant species, location, and farm management practices.

What is the main idea of the passage?

1. Wildflower strips may support pollinators and potentially benefit nearby crops.
   2. All farms should replace their crops with wildflowers.
   3. Pollinating insects damage most agricultural crops.
   4. Wildflower strips work equally well under every farming condition.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage describes how wildflower strips provide habitat and food for pollinating insects and may increase pollinator visits to nearby crops. It also notes that effectiveness varies depending on several factors. Choice 1 accurately summarizes both the potential benefit and the agricultural context. Choice 2 exaggerates the idea by suggesting crops should be replaced entirely. Choice 3 contradicts the positive role pollinators play. Choice 4 conflicts with the final sentence, which explicitly says effectiveness depends on species, location, and management. ACT Reading main-idea questions require a balanced answer that captures the central point without making the author’s claim broader or more absolute than the passage supports.

Question 114.

In the passage from Question 113, why does the author include the phrase “under certain conditions”?

1. To show that increased pollinator visits are not guaranteed in every situation
   2. To prove that wildflowers never help crops
   3. To suggest that all farms have identical environments
   4. To show that pollinators visit crops only at night

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The phrase “under certain conditions” limits the claim about increased pollinator visits. It signals that wildflower strips can be helpful, but their effect is not guaranteed everywhere. The final sentence reinforces this idea by explaining that effectiveness depends on plant species, location, and farm management. Therefore, Choice 1 is correct. Choice 2 makes the opposite claim, while Choices 3 and 4 introduce ideas not supported by the passage. ACT Reading often tests the effect of qualifying phrases such as “sometimes,” “often,” “may,” or “under certain conditions.” These words matter because they prevent a limited finding from being interpreted as a universal rule.

Question 115.

Which inference is best supported by the passage in Question 113?

1. The design of a wildflower strip may influence how useful it is to a farm.
   2. Every pollinating insect prefers the same plant species.
   3. Wildflower strips always increase crop yields.
   4. Farmers no longer need any other management practices.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The passage states that the effectiveness of wildflower strips depends on plant species, location, and farm management practices. From this, it is reasonable to infer that how a strip is designed and managed can influence its usefulness. Choice 1 is therefore well supported. Choice 2 is an unsupported generalization about all pollinators. Choice 3 is too strong because the passage mentions increased pollinator visits, not guaranteed yield increases. Choice 4 also overstates the role of the strips and contradicts the mention of broader farm management. ACT inference questions require conclusions that follow from the text but do not go beyond it. Limited, carefully worded answers are often stronger than absolute claims.

Question 116.

A student investigates how soil moisture affects seedling growth. Four groups of identical seedlings receive 25 mL, 50 mL, 75 mL, or 100 mL of water each day. All other conditions are kept constant. What is the independent variable?

1. Seedling height
   2. Amount of water provided each day
   3. Type of seedling
   4. Length of the experiment

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The independent variable is the factor deliberately changed by the researcher. In this experiment, the student varies the amount of water each group receives: 25, 50, 75, or 100 mL per day. Therefore, Choice 2 is correct. Seedling height would be a likely dependent variable because it is the outcome measured. The type of seedling and the length of the experiment should remain constant so that water amount is the principal difference among groups. ACT Science frequently tests experimental design. A simple rule is that the independent variable is what the researcher manipulates, while the dependent variable is the measured response.

Question 117.

Why should the seedlings in Question 116 receive the same amount of light?

1. To prevent light differences from influencing growth among the groups
   2. To make the watering amounts identical
   3. To introduce a second independent variable
   4. To stop the seedlings from growing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Light can strongly affect plant growth, so it should be held constant if the experiment is intended to test the effect of water amount. If one group received much more light than another, differences in growth could result from light rather than watering. By keeping light exposure similar, the student reduces a possible confounding variable. Choice 2 is incorrect because water amount is intentionally varied. Choice 3 would weaken the experiment by making two important variables change at the same time. Choice 4 contradicts the purpose of the study. ACT Science often asks why experimental controls matter. Keeping relevant factors constant makes causal interpretation more reliable.

Question 118.

The experiment in Question 116 produced the following average growth after 3 weeks:
25 mL: 4 cm
50 mL: 8 cm
75 mL: 12 cm
100 mL: 10 cm
Which conclusion is best supported?

1. Growth increased through 75 mL of water but decreased at 100 mL.
   2. Growth decreased steadily as watering increased.
   3. The 25 mL group grew the most.
   4. Water amount had no relationship with growth.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The average growth rises from 4 cm at 25 mL to 8 cm at 50 mL and 12 cm at 75 mL. At 100 mL, however, growth declines to 10 cm. Choice 1 accurately summarizes this pattern. Choice 2 is incorrect because growth initially increases. Choice 3 reverses the results because the 25 mL group has the lowest growth. Choice 4 ignores the clear differences among treatments. ACT Science questions often include data that increase up to a point and then decline. Do not assume a relationship must always be perfectly linear. Read each value carefully and choose the conclusion that matches the entire pattern rather than only part of it.

Question 119.

Scientist A argues that a decrease in a bird population is mainly caused by reduced nesting habitat. Scientist B argues that the primary cause is a decline in insect food. Which evidence would most directly support Scientist B?

1. Bird populations decline most in areas where insect abundance falls sharply even though suitable nesting habitat remains stable.
   2. Several nesting areas have been converted into parking lots.
   3. Some birds migrate hundreds of miles each year.
   4. The species has brightly colored feathers.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Scientist B argues that declining insect food is the main cause of the bird population decrease. Choice 1 directly supports that explanation because bird numbers fall where insects decline while nesting habitat remains relatively stable. This reduces habitat loss as a competing explanation. Choice 2 would instead support Scientist A. Choices 3 and 4 provide background information but do not directly test either hypothesis. ACT Science conflicting-viewpoints questions require you to connect new evidence to the exact mechanism proposed by each scientist. Strong supporting evidence often shows a change in the scientist’s proposed variable while the competing variable remains stable.

Question 120.

A researcher tests whether a new soil treatment increases plant growth. Group A receives the treatment and 13 hours of light each day. Group B receives no treatment and 8 hours of light each day. Group A grows taller. Why is the conclusion that the soil treatment caused the extra growth not fully justified?

1. The two groups differed in both soil treatment and light exposure.
   2. Plant growth cannot be measured accurately.
   3. Soil treatments never influence plant growth.
   4. More light always prevents plants from growing.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The experiment changes two important variables at the same time. Group A receives the new soil treatment and also receives five more hours of light per day than Group B. Because light can affect plant growth, the researcher cannot determine whether the additional growth resulted from the soil treatment, the longer light exposure, or a combination of both. This is a confounding-variable problem. A stronger experiment would keep light exposure equal and vary only the soil treatment. Choices 2, 3, and 4 are unsupported absolute statements. ACT Science often tests whether an experimental design supports a causal conclusion. To identify cause more confidently, the independent variable should be isolated while other important conditions remain as similar as possible.