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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 40

Question 390

Management implemented a response after this event: Service-to-service requests use TLS for server identity but the receiver cannot distinguish authorized workload clients. The response was: Require mutual authentication and bind validated client identities to service-level authorization. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A client connects over TLS without presenting a valid client identity and still accesses the protected API.
  2. An unauthorized client certificate is rejected and approved workload identity is least-privileged.
  3. A shared service certificate permits an unrelated workload to perform protected billing actions.
  4. The TLS protocol negotiates modern ciphers but the receiving service never checks client identity or permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An unauthorized client certificate is rejected and approved workload identity is least-privileged. Server TLS prevents impostor servers but does not by itself authenticate calling services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Server-only authentication has not enforced the workload caller boundary.

C:

Cryptographic client proof without scoped authorization is insufficient.

D:

Cipher-suite health cannot establish service-to-service least privilege.

Question 391

A team lets the administrator who configured a high-risk access control also certify it without independent evidence. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Ask the administrator who configured the high-risk rule to self-certify it with no outside evidence.
  2. Judge the control solely by whether its configuration file parses without errors.
  3. Assign assessment roles with appropriate independence and explicit scope and authorization.
  4. Skip testing and rely on the product vendor’s security marketing certificate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Independent evaluation reduces self-review bias and strengthens assurance about actual control effectiveness. Independence alone does not establish competence or the sufficiency of sampling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Self-review creates bias and lacks independent operating-effectiveness assurance.

B:

Syntax validity does not establish that access is enforced against unauthorized behaviors.

D:

A generic supplier claim cannot verify the specific deployed access-control operation.

Question 392

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A team lets the administrator who configured a high-risk access control also certify it without independent evidence. The approved response was: Assign assessment roles with appropriate independence and explicit scope and authorization. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Independence alone does not establish competence or the sufficiency of sampling.
  2. An assessor who is independent is automatically qualified and has sampled every relevant access path.
  3. Testing that a rule loads correctly proves its policy intent is enforced for unauthorized requests.
  4. An installer can declare an access rule effective based solely on their own successful login.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Independent evaluation reduces self-review bias and strengthens assurance about actual control effectiveness. The control's design and effectiveness are assessed by qualified personnel outside implementation ownership.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Independence does not ensure technical competence, coverage or sufficient evidence.

C:

Configuration presence is separate from operating effectiveness.

D:

Positive self-tests cannot provide independent negative security assurance.

Question 393

Management implemented a response after this event: A team lets the administrator who configured a high-risk access control also certify it without independent evidence. The response was: Assign assessment roles with appropriate independence and explicit scope and authorization. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The implementing administrator signs their own change ticket without any independent unauthorized-access test.
  2. An external assessor reviews documentation but never tests protected resources or attempted bypass.
  3. The control's design and effectiveness are assessed by qualified personnel outside implementation ownership.
  4. The rule deployment succeeded while a forbidden test principal can still access the resource.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control's design and effectiveness are assessed by qualified personnel outside implementation ownership. Independent evaluation reduces self-review bias and strengthens assurance about actual control effectiveness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Self-attestation and change closure do not demonstrate objective effectiveness.

B:

Reviewer independence alone cannot replace actual sufficient control evidence.

D:

A working deployment pipeline is not proof of enforced access policy.

Question 394

An external tester expands a contracted subnet assessment to unrelated production ranges without permission. What is the best next action?

  1. Stop out-of-scope activity and confirm written authorization, assets, windows, procedures, exclusions and escalation contacts.
  2. Continue because the hosts are reachable from the tester's VPN.
  3. Start destructive tests to demonstrate initiative before the contract is updated.
  4. Assume the signed contract automatically includes every affiliate's cloud tenancy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Rules of engagement establish lawful scope and safe operational limits for security testing.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Network reachability is not authorization to test a system.

C:

Unapproved intrusive traffic creates legal, safety and business risks.

D:

Third-party assets and provider managed systems can require separate permission.

Question 395

The tester now has signed ROE for a web app. Which issue remains unresolved?

  1. Signed ROE makes any destructive payload harmless.
  2. The tester's professional certification grants blanket authority over all reachable assets.
  3. The testing window means findings can be disclosed to anyone immediately.
  4. Supporting cloud-provider systems or production dependencies outside the named scope may need separate owner approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A bounded application assessment does not authorize scanning adjacent provider resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorization and safe technique limitations remain necessary during execution.

B:

Professional credentials do not replace system-owner authorization.

C:

Data handling and disclosure obligations survive the assessment window.

Question 396

Which evidence best demonstrates compliance with security test authorization?

  1. A list of discovered vulnerable hosts without ownership mapping.
  2. A marketing page calls the vendor a 'trusted partner'.
  3. A single screenshot of a successful login to the tester's dashboard.
  4. Timestamped executed hosts, techniques and windows reconcile to signed ROE and documented scope-change approvals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Technical logs allow comparison of what occurred with the approved targets and boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A finding count cannot prove tests remained in the authorized ranges.

B:

Vendor reputation does not demonstrate project-specific authorization.

C:

Tool access is unrelated to allowed targets and test behavior.

Question 397

A customer wants a penetration test of a SaaS provider's infrastructure without checking contractual permission. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Scan the SaaS provider’s underlying production infrastructure without prior contractual testing authority.
  2. Clarify cloud service responsibility and obtain provider authorization or alternate assurance evidence.
  3. Treat the provider’s generic assurance report as covering every customer-configured tenant permission.
  4. Attempt destructive denial-of-service testing against shared SaaS infrastructure as a normal customer validation step.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

SaaS customers do not automatically have authority to test provider-managed infrastructure. A provider audit report may still omit customer-controlled configurations and access policies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Customer tenancy does not automatically grant legal permission over provider-managed assets.

C:

Supplier reports may exclude customer IAM settings and application configuration.

D:

Unapproved testing can harm other tenants and exceed the authorized scope.

Question 398

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A customer wants a penetration test of a SaaS provider's infrastructure without checking contractual permission. The approved response was: Clarify cloud service responsibility and obtain provider authorization or alternate assurance evidence. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Purchasing a SaaS subscription automatically grants penetration-testing rights over the provider’s shared infrastructure.
  2. A provider audit report may still omit customer-controlled configurations and access policies.
  3. A provider audit means customer-selected OAuth scopes and sharing settings are fully tested.
  4. A scan limited to the customer-facing URL can always determine all internal provider infrastructure vulnerabilities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

SaaS customers do not automatically have authority to test provider-managed infrastructure. An assessment plan separates provider evidence from customer-side security tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ownership and contract boundaries govern assessment authorization.

C:

Customer-managed configurations require separate evidence and assurance.

D:

Visibility and legal scope differ from infrastructure ownership and may require provider evidence.

Question 399

Management implemented a response after this event: A customer wants a penetration test of a SaaS provider's infrastructure without checking contractual permission. The response was: Clarify cloud service responsibility and obtain provider authorization or alternate assurance evidence. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The tenant runs unauthorized scans of provider networks but has no testing permission or scope document.
  2. The provider presents an assurance report that omits customer IAM configuration, but no tenant review is performed.
  3. An assessment plan separates provider evidence from customer-side security tests.
  4. A third-party report shows general datacenter security while the application’s tenant OAuth scopes remain unchecked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An assessment plan separates provider evidence from customer-side security tests. SaaS customers do not automatically have authority to test provider-managed infrastructure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technical results do not substitute for legal testing authority.

B:

Scope gaps must be mapped to customer-side assessment.

D:

Provider infrastructure controls cannot establish the customer’s own configuration assurance.

Question 400

A scanner lists many possible CVEs across public hosts. Executives call the report evidence that attackers can compromise customer records. What assessment approach BEST substantiates or corrects the claim?

  1. Use validated vulnerability assessment for exposure inventory, then authorized penetration testing of representative exploit paths and business impact under agreed rules of engagement.
  2. Count CVE identifiers as confirmed exploited breaches and report the total without validating findings.
  3. Run destructive exploits on production without owner authorization to ensure the result is realistic.
  4. Replace periodic scanning entirely with one annual penetration test of a single endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A scanner match is not proof of exploitation; a scoped penetration test can demonstrate feasible attack paths, while continued scanning is needed for broader coverage.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Potential vulnerabilities are not the same as proven exploitation or impact on protected data.

C:

Unapproved intrusive testing can create legal and availability harms; scope and rules of engagement must precede exploitation.

D:

A point-in-time test cannot provide broad continuous asset and vulnerability coverage for the fleet.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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