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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 13

Question 120

A Direct Connect private VIF has stable ConnectionState=1 but its VirtualInterfaceBgpStatus fell to 0 after a customer router maintenance window. An application loses on-premises reachability while physical link alarms stay green. Which monitoring principle explains this discrepancy?

  1. ConnectionState=1 guarantees VirtualInterfaceBgpStatus=1 and unchanged route advertisements.
  2. EC2 CPUUtilization determines whether the Direct Connect VIF is exchanging prefixes.
  3. CloudWatch publishes physical connection and virtual-interface BGP status separately, so link-up does not imply the routed BGP adjacency or accepted prefixes are healthy.
  4. A green Route 53 health check automatically restores a down Direct Connect BGP peer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Physical transport and BGP control-plane states are different Direct Connect measurements; a VIF BGP-down alarm can catch a failure invisible to an optical link-up check.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Direct Connect connection may stay up while its VIF BGP session is down.

B:

EC2 CPU metrics do not describe the VIF routing peer state.

D:

DNS/health checks do not fix router-level BGP adjacency faults.

Question 121

A data processing site sends 95% of its scheduled traffic across a Direct Connect circuit during a one-hour window. CloudWatch shows connection bandwidth near the purchased capacity and packet drops, while BGP is stable. Which operational mitigation is best supported?

  1. Reduce peak demand or provision additional suitable connection capacity after confirming link utilization.
  2. Delete the functioning BGP adjacency to eliminate its route.
  3. Rotate a public Route 53 DNSSEC key.
  4. Add a security-group ingress rule for all internet IPs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Capacity saturation with stable control-plane routing points to throughput management rather than BGP neighbor repair.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Removing reachability would not increase available transport throughput.

C:

DNS signing has no direct impact on circuit saturation.

D:

Broad ingress exposure cannot relieve the dedicated circuit’s bandwidth limit.

Question 122

A network team can see route reachability but needs inspection logs to justify why certain protocols were denied.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Set up narrowly scoped VPC Traffic Mirroring to a protected inspection target with an explicit retention and access policy
  2. Enable the appropriate AWS Network Firewall flow or alert logging destination and correlate entries with firewall policy and routed packet path
  3. Configure CloudWatch metric filters or native metrics, an appropriate alarm and a controlled notification or response target
  4. Enable VPC Flow Logs with appropriate fields, aggregation, scope and protected log delivery for the investigated resources

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Managed firewall logging exposes inspected flow outcomes and alert events, while VPC Flow Logs alone do not explain stateful intrusion-rule matches. The proposed change can be checked by whether a test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This configuration addresses vpc traffic mirroring security packet evidence, not the network firewall flow and alert log delivery requirement. Traffic Mirroring copies supported packet traffic to a capture destination, whereas flow logs provide aggregate network metadata.

C:

This configuration addresses cloudwatch alarm and security response integration, not the network firewall flow and alert log delivery requirement. CloudWatch alarms evaluate metric periods and thresholds while EventBridge and notification integrations can dispatch timely security response signals.

D:

This configuration addresses vpc flow logs for security investigations, not the network firewall flow and alert log delivery requirement. Flow logs emit metadata such as IP addresses, ports, bytes and ACCEPT/REJECT action for supported network flows, not raw packet bodies.

Question 123

A subnet has a custom network ACL allowing inbound client TCP port 443 traffic, but return connections fail. The ACL has no corresponding outbound ephemeral-port rule. Instance security groups already permit the service. What is the required fix?

  1. Rely on the inbound allow entry to automatically permit return traffic
  2. Increase the HTTP keep-alive timeout at CloudFront
  3. Enable Transit Gateway route propagation in another account
  4. Permit the corresponding outbound return-port ranges in the subnet network ACL

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Network ACLs are stateless; reply traffic must independently match allowed outbound rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

NACLs do not automatically allow the reverse flow for an accepted request.

B:

The subnet ACL blocks return traffic regardless of an edge connection timeout.

C:

Transit Gateway routing does not override the local stateless ACL denial.

Question 124

An S3-backed help center uses CloudFront with primary and secondary regional origins. The primary intermittently returns 503 to GET /manual.pdf, and the secondary holds identical approved documents. Operators want transparent failover only for these server failures. What must be configured?

  1. Only a shorter Route 53 TTL on the public domain name.
  2. A CloudFront cache policy that adds all request headers to the cache key.
  3. An NLB UDP listener forwarding PDF requests to the backup S3 bucket.
  4. An origin group with the secondary origin and HTTP 503 selected as a failover condition.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An origin group can retry a supported GET request against a configured secondary when the primary returns a designated failover status such as 503. The secondary must contain the appropriate object.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Short DNS TTL changes resolution caching but does not make CloudFront retry a failed GET at a second configured origin. The needed decision is inside the distribution.

B:

Adding all headers to the cache key changes representation fragmentation and hit rate; it does not define primary-to-secondary origin failover when a cached PDF request receives HTTP 503.

C:

A UDP listener is unrelated to CloudFront GET retrieval and is not a native S3 origin failover facility. It introduces a transport mismatch rather than meeting the HTTP requirement.

Question 125

AWS Network Firewall logs show a stateful rule rejecting one outbound TCP flow. VPC Flow Logs for the same source interface show ACCEPT for a flow matching its initial network path. Which combined interpretation is most defensible?

  1. The two records cannot refer to the same flow because ACCEPT and reject are mutually exclusive globally.
  2. The flow must have completed a successful application response.
  3. A Route 53 alias record automatically overrode the firewall.
  4. The VPC interface filter accepted the flow, but the downstream inspection policy can still deny it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Different AWS network controls log decisions at different points; acceptance at one point does not override later firewall inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Distinct filtering components can produce different decisions along one attempted path.

B:

An inspection-layer reject contradicts a guaranteed end-to-end success claim.

C:

DNS alias resolution does not grant exception to network inspection policy.

Question 126

Multiple AWS accounts need the same approved VPC subnet and routing pattern but engineers currently copy manual console steps.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control
  2. Synthesized templates and resulting stacks match approved network boundaries and automated policy checks reject forbidden configurations
  3. The pipeline successfully creates only authorized network resources, denied operations are blocked and each change is traceable to the assumed role
  4. A deliberately noncompliant test network resource is flagged and the approved remediation produces a compliant state with history retained

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control. That is relevant because declarative infrastructure templates create repeatable network resources while parameters and outputs separate environment-specific values from resource definitions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This would validate aws cdk secure network constructs. The case instead needs evidence for cloudformation parameterized vpc deployment: Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control.

C:

This would validate multi-account network automation role boundaries. The case instead needs evidence for cloudformation parameterized vpc deployment: Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control.

D:

This would validate aws config network compliance conformance. The case instead needs evidence for cloudformation parameterized vpc deployment: Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control.

Question 127

A media CDN has a declining CloudFront cache-hit ratio after a release. The application began appending a unique analytics query parameter to every static image request, and the cache policy includes all query parameters. What observation supports the optimization hypothesis?

  1. Review cache keys and exclude analytics-only parameters while retaining those that actually vary image content.
  2. Increase image request uniqueness by adding a second random parameter.
  3. Disable all origin health checks on the ALB.
  4. Move the images to a different Route 53 registrar.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A unique irrelevant query field makes equivalent objects appear distinct and causes unnecessary origin fetches.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Additional high-cardinality values would further fragment shared cached objects.

C:

Load-balancer probes do not change CloudFront’s object cache key.

D:

Registrar delegation does not eliminate cache-key fragmentation.

Question 128

A network administrator needs to identify why return traffic behaves differently across security group and network ACL policies.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Apply least-privilege security-group rules to ENIs and use network ACLs for stateless subnet-level allow/deny controls with proper ephemeral return ports
  2. Apply the appropriate AWS Shield protection tier and pair it with tested edge scaling, AWS WAF where relevant and incident procedures
  3. Separate Transit Gateway route tables by trust boundary and allow only the required attachments and prefix propagations
  4. Use PrivateLink endpoint service permissions and consumer endpoint policies or security groups for scoped service connectivity

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Security groups are stateful at resource interfaces, while network ACLs are stateless subnet filters evaluated separately for each traffic direction. The proposed change can be checked by whether approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This configuration addresses aws shield and resilient ddos posture, not the security groups versus network acl layers requirement. AWS Shield mitigates supported distributed denial-of-service attack patterns, while layer-seven WAF policies and architecture address different threats.

C:

This configuration addresses cross-account transit gateway route segmentation, not the security groups versus network acl layers requirement. Transit Gateway attachment association and propagation control which routed prefixes each network segment can reach, independent of VPC security-group rules.

D:

This configuration addresses privatelink least-privilege service boundary, not the security groups versus network acl layers requirement. PrivateLink allows authorized VPC consumers to access a published endpoint service without broad VPC peering or transitive network reachability.

Question 129

The central network account shared a Transit Gateway but another account's VPC attachment is pending and unable to pass traffic.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Configure explicit static routes to cross-Region peer prefixes in the relevant Transit Gateway route tables and matching VPC subnet return routes
  2. Add matching non-overlapping destination routes to both associated VPC subnet route tables and verify applicable security rules
  3. Deploy supported NAT gateways per required Availability Zone, point private subnet default routes to the correct gateway, and review resilient egress design
  4. Share the eligible Transit Gateway through AWS RAM, process required resource-owner acceptance and finish controlled association/propagation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Resource sharing and attachment authorization are separate from route-table configuration; each stage must be complete before transit is usable. The proposed change can be checked by whether the consumer attachment is accepted and available, its routes are permitted, and the source VPC can reach only approved prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This configuration addresses transit gateway cross-region static routing, not the aws ram share and attachment acceptance requirement. Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path.

B:

This configuration addresses vpc peering bilateral route update, not the aws ram share and attachment acceptance requirement. VPC peering has no transitive routing and requires both VPCs to route toward the peering connection for successful bidirectional traffic.

C:

This configuration addresses nat gateway route and az resilience, not the aws ram share and attachment acceptance requirement. A public NAT gateway translates outbound private IPv4 flows using public subnet connectivity but does not make private instances directly internet-addressable.

Question 130

An EC2 host must resolve the datacenter namespace hr.onprem.internal. A Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint is healthy and the target corporate DNS servers accept queries, but no forwarding rule matches hr.onprem.internal in the application VPC. What configuration completes this design?

  1. Create a matching Resolver forwarding rule, specify the on-premises target servers, and associate the rule with the VPC.
  2. Add an inbound Resolver endpoint and point datacenter clients at the application EC2 instance.
  3. Place hr.onprem.internal in a public hosted zone with an empty response.
  4. Increase the TCP idle timeout of an unrelated Application Load Balancer target group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An outbound endpoint alone does not choose which names to send externally. A domain-specific forwarding rule and VPC association route eligible VPC DNS queries to the corporate resolvers.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An inbound endpoint receives queries from on-premises resolvers toward VPC namespaces. The requirement is VPC clients querying an existing datacenter authoritative service, so direction is wrong.

C:

An empty public zone does not forward private HR DNS requests to datacenter servers and would not meet the nonpublic namespace design.

D:

ALB target group timeouts govern application connections and have no effect on Route 53 Resolver rules or how the VPC chooses DNS forwarding destinations.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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