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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 15

Question 140

A service reachable inside one subnet fails across an internal firewall subnet. The team wants to identify the route-table or security-group rule that would block the expected VPC path without sending test packets. Which analysis should be performed first?

  1. Rely only on CloudTrail API change counts
  2. Run VPC Reachability Analyzer for the source and destination resources
  3. Deploy CloudFront in front of both instances
  4. Change BGP timers on an unrelated Direct Connect circuit

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reachability Analyzer inspects network configuration and reports the modeled path or blocking component.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudTrail counts do not compute whether current network configurations allow a particular path.

C:

HTTP edge distribution would not diagnose the private subnet forwarding path.

D:

An unrelated hybrid adjacency does not determine a local VPC static reachability path.

Question 141

A company issues private TLS certificates for internal service identities through its governed CA. The service must not require public internet domain validation, and it must support organizational issuance and revocation policies. Which AWS certificate architecture fits?

  1. Use Route 53 weighted public DNS to sign mutual TLS certificates for the service hosts.
  2. Use AWS Private CA with an approved private hierarchy and governed certificate issuance for the internal services.
  3. Use only public ACM certificates for arbitrary non-public names without a private CA.
  4. Replace identity certificates with a VPC security group and assume TLS peer authentication remains available.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

AWS Private CA provides a managed private certificate authority hierarchy for internal trust and controlled issuance. Services must trust the appropriate private chain when validating peers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS weighted routing selects eligible DNS answers but does not issue certificates, manage private keys, or act as an internal certificate authority.

C:

Publicly trusted certificates depend on eligible domain-validation and trust constraints; they are not a substitute for governing a private organizational CA for arbitrary internal identities.

D:

Security groups enforce network traffic allowances, not X.509 issuance, certificate chains, or cryptographic peer identity validation during a TLS handshake.

Question 142

A company has dedicated private fiber to AWS but its security standard requires IPsec protection for regulated application data.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Use AWS Private CA with governed issuance templates, renewal and revocation practices appropriate to internal workloads
  2. Enable supported Route 53 DNSSEC signing and publish matching DS information at the registrar, then test validation paths
  3. Use a supported encrypted transport such as Site-to-Site VPN over eligible Direct Connect connectivity or application-layer TLS
  4. Configure CloudFront viewer protocol and origin protocol policies to require HTTPS with a valid origin certificate for the intended behavior

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Direct Connect is a dedicated network connection but does not universally encrypt payloads; IPsec or TLS adds cryptographic confidentiality when configured. The proposed change can be checked by whether a supported cryptographic validation proves traffic uses an approved cipher and endpoint identities while remaining on the intended path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This configuration addresses acm private ca internal mutual trust, not the vpn encryption over direct connect requirement. ACM Private CA issues private certificates under an organization-controlled certificate hierarchy, distinct from public ACM trust issuance.

B:

This configuration addresses route 53 dnssec chain-of-trust protection, not the vpn encryption over direct connect requirement. DNSSEC uses cryptographic signatures and a parent-child chain of trust so validating resolvers can detect altered DNS records.

D:

This configuration addresses cloudfront https viewer and origin settings, not the vpn encryption over direct connect requirement. CloudFront has separate viewer-to-edge and edge-to-origin transport settings; encrypting one segment does not automatically encrypt both.

Question 143

A central inspection VPC has a stateful appliance behind a Transit Gateway attachment. Forward flows and return flows can reach different AZ attachment ENIs, causing stateful drop events. Which Transit Gateway attachment option should be considered with correct symmetric routing?

  1. Enable appliance mode support on the inspection VPC attachment where the topology meets its requirements.
  2. Enable DNSSEC signing for the inspection VPC’s private zone.
  3. Change both VPC CIDRs to the same range.
  4. Disable all Transit Gateway route tables to avoid AZ drift.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Appliance mode helps maintain flow affinity through a stateful inspection VPC when used with compatible routing.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS signing does not preserve inspection flow affinity across gateway attachments.

C:

Overlapping CIDRs create routing ambiguity and do not solve appliance state.

D:

Without routes the inspection traffic cannot be forwarded at all.

Question 144

After a capacity upgrade, an analytics EC2 instance still tops out far below its required packets per second. The operations team verified that ENA is enabled but reused sizing assumptions from a larger instance family without checking the selected instance's published network limits. Which modeling error threatens the throughput target?

  1. Increasing EC2 compute capacity without subnet IP headroom can cause deployment failures unrelated to CPU or memory quotas
  2. Assuming all EC2 instance sizes support identical ENI throughput can produce unresolvable application bottlenecks
  3. Leaving high-volume eligible service traffic behind NAT gateways increases processing cost without improving private reachability
  4. Deploying the cluster on incompatible or non-EFA instances can keep distributed computations limited by ordinary network latency

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ENA support does not make different EC2 instance sizes offer identical throughput or packet rates; the smaller instance can cap this workload before CPU is exhausted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VPC IPAM tracks allocations and overlap across organizational address pools, while usable subnet space still bounds ENI and pod growth. That explains the separate ipam and vpc cidr growth planning issue, not this demonstrated eni performance instance network capability failure.

C:

That outcome depends on nat gateway data-processing cost reduction, whose mechanism is different: A gateway endpoint can route supported S3 traffic inside AWS without passing that traffic through a NAT gateway's per-GB processing path. The reported defect concerns eni performance instance network capability.

D:

Elastic Fabric Adapter offers specialized OS-bypass networking for supported HPC workloads; it is not a generic internet-facing load balancer. That explains the separate elastic fabric adapter hpc placement issue, not this demonstrated eni performance instance network capability failure.

Question 145

A centralized AWS Network Firewall stateful rule group is deployed across several VPC CIDRs. Inspection of a newly added spoke CIDR fails to match rules that depend on HOME_NET, despite correct firewall routing. What configuration should be reviewed?

  1. Reissue the organization’s public DNSSEC key for the spoke CIDR.
  2. Add CloudFront edge caching to the subnet.
  3. Change the S3 gateway endpoint policy on an unrelated VPC.
  4. Update the rule-group network variable scope to include the intended protected CIDRs where applicable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Some stateful rule conditions rely on HOME_NET-style address variables; missing new networks can change matching outcomes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNSSEC does not configure stateful firewall address variables.

B:

CDN distribution does not extend firewall rule network scope.

C:

S3 endpoint authorization does not define the stateful rule HOME_NET membership.

Question 146

An EC2 instance cannot reach a database across VPCs even though a console dashboard reports both instances running.

Which technical explanation best accounts for the network behavior described?

  1. Traffic Mirroring sends copied eligible packets for deep network inspection, while flow logs expose aggregate metadata rather than complete packet sequences
  2. Oversized packets may be discarded when encapsulation reduces effective MTU and Path MTU Discovery messages are blocked or misinterpreted
  3. Reachability Analyzer performs static analysis of supported AWS network configuration and does not send real traffic or inspect application processes
  4. VPC Flow Logs summarize observed network flows, and ACCEPT usually indicates network-level permission rather than successful application-layer processing

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reachability Analyzer performs static analysis of supported AWS network configuration and does not send real traffic or inspect application processes. A direct check is to use VPC Reachability Analyzer on the specific source and destination to identify the modeled blocking component, then validate with a real packet test and observe the corresponding path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Traffic Mirroring sends copied eligible packets for deep network inspection, while flow logs expose aggregate metadata rather than complete packet sequences. That is a valid account of vpc traffic mirroring tls retransmission investigation, but it does not explain the reachability analyzer blocked security group diagnosis behavior in the scenario.

B:

Oversized packets may be discarded when encapsulation reduces effective MTU and Path MTU Discovery messages are blocked or misinterpreted. That is a valid account of path mtu discovery black-hole diagnosis, but it does not explain the reachability analyzer blocked security group diagnosis behavior in the scenario.

D:

VPC Flow Logs summarize observed network flows, and ACCEPT usually indicates network-level permission rather than successful application-layer processing. That is a valid account of flow log reject versus accept interpretation, but it does not explain the reachability analyzer blocked security group diagnosis behavior in the scenario.

Question 147

An application target serves 200 on /ready but returns 404 on /. Its ALB target group uses the default HTTP GET health-check path / and marks every target unhealthy, although users can reach the ready endpoint directly. Which precise correction should be made?

  1. Create a Route 53 alias to the same ALB and lower the DNS TTL.
  2. Set the target-group health-check path to /ready with an appropriate success-code matcher.
  3. Increase the ALB access-log retention to include more 404 responses.
  4. Enable cross-zone load balancing without changing the failing health-check request.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ALB target-group health checks use a configured HTTP path and acceptable response codes. Choosing /ready matches the application readiness contract and allows healthy targets to pass the probe.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A DNS alias can direct users to an ALB but does not influence the URL sent from ALB health checkers to registered targets.

C:

Access logs can describe past requests but cannot change the failing health probe. Targets still respond 404 to / and remain unhealthy with the original configuration.

D:

Cross-zone load balancing changes target distribution across enabled zones. It does not fix the wrong path requested by the target-group health checker.

Question 148

A network engineer discovers that a production security group permitted SSH from 0.0.0.0/0 for two hours yesterday. The audit team must identify the IAM role that made the ModifySecurityGroupRules API call. Which record source answers that attribution question?

  1. VPC Flow Logs showing SSH packets during the exposure
  2. Route 53 Resolver logs for the instance hostname
  3. Direct Connect physical-link metrics
  4. AWS CloudTrail management events covering the EC2 security-group API changes

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CloudTrail captures supported management API calls and associated principal details for change attribution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flow Logs describe network traffic but not who edited an EC2 API resource.

B:

DNS query logs cannot identify the IAM actor behind the security-group update.

C:

Link monitoring does not record EC2 security-group administrator identities.

Question 149

A gRPC service runs behind an ALB HTTPS listener and uses the HTTP/2 target protocol version. It exposes a documented custom CheckService RPC for readiness. The team configured /healthz as a conventional HTTP path and the health probes fail. What health-check format is appropriate?

  1. Use UDP/443 probes because gRPC always runs directly over UDP rather than HTTP/2.
  2. Point Route 53 health checks at a VPC private hosted zone instead of the gRPC backend.
  3. Use the S3 static website endpoint as the target-group health-check proxy.
  4. Configure the target-group gRPC health-check method as /package.Service/CheckService and set expected gRPC status codes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ALB gRPC target groups support a custom /package.service/method health-check path and gRPC code matcher. Probing the application’s readiness RPC directly tests the implemented service method.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ALB gRPC runs over HTTP/2 in an HTTPS listener configuration; a UDP target probe would use the wrong protocol and never call the specified RPC.

B:

Private hosted zone records influence DNS answers, not the target-group gRPC method or its expected return status. They cannot repair a malformed backend readiness probe.

C:

S3 static website hosting serves HTTP objects, not an application gRPC readiness method. It is unrelated to the ALB target group configured for the service.

Question 150

A security organization is deploying vendor virtual-firewall appliances to inspect arbitrary IP protocols between VPCs, not just HTTP or TCP. Its target appliances can decapsulate GENEVE traffic. Which load-balancer target-group protocol is required for the managed insertion service?

  1. Use an Application Load Balancer HTTPS target group with path-based rules.
  2. Use a Network Load Balancer UDP target group on port 53 only.
  3. Use a CloudFront origin group with viewer request caching disabled.
  4. Use a Gateway Load Balancer target group speaking GENEVE on port 6081.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Gateway Load Balancer forwards original IP packets to inspection appliances using GENEVE encapsulation on its documented port. This transparent layer-three pattern fits arbitrary protocol inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An ALB routes decrypted HTTP requests according to layer-seven conditions, and cannot transparently insert a virtual firewall into arbitrary routed IP packet flows.

B:

A UDP/53 NLB target group could distribute that transport traffic but does not perform Gateway Load Balancer GENEVE appliance insertion for every IP protocol.

C:

A CDN origin group selects HTTP origins, not inline packet inspection appliances. Disabling caching does not turn CloudFront into a layer-three network firewall transport.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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