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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 2

Question 10

Private-subnet ETL workers in one AWS Region download large files from S3 buckets in that same Region through a public NAT gateway. The security team wants the workers to remain private and the finance team wants to avoid NAT data-processing fees for S3 traffic. What is the preferred network change?

  1. Attach an Elastic IP to every private-subnet worker so S3 traffic bypasses the NAT gateway.
  2. Create a Direct Connect public VIF from the S3 service to the application subnet.
  3. Create an S3 gateway VPC endpoint and associate it with the workers' subnet route tables, subject to necessary endpoint and bucket policies.
  4. Move the S3 buckets to public website endpoints and remove encryption in transit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An S3 gateway endpoint supplies a VPC route to same-Region S3 without requiring NAT or internet egress for the private instances. Associating the correct subnet route tables redirects eligible S3 traffic while maintaining applicable access controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Public addresses on every worker change the private-workload posture and create operational overhead. The cost problem is specifically service traffic via NAT, not an absence of instance public addresses.

B:

A Direct Connect public VIF serves customer-to-AWS public connectivity, not a VPC-native endpoint for local private-subnet S3 requests. It adds a physical hybrid dependency where none is needed.

D:

S3 website exposure is unnecessary for authorized application downloads and violates the intent to keep traffic and resources private. Removing transport security would create risk rather than reduce required NAT fees safely.

Question 11

A PCI application sends selected east-west TCP traffic through a dedicated inspection VPC connected by TGW. AWS Network Firewall endpoints are healthy, but only outbound traffic crosses them; return packets follow a different TGW/VPC path and stateful sessions fail. What routing correction is required?

  1. Add a more permissive application security-group rule while leaving the asymmetric return path around the firewall unchanged.
  2. Change the relevant subnet/TGW attachment routes so both forward and return traffic traverse the appropriate Network Firewall endpoint, then prove the bidirectional path and policy logs.
  3. Enable additional AWS Network Firewall flow logs but retain the route that sends return traffic directly around the inspection attachment.
  4. Change only the DNS record for the private destination to a new hostname without fixing the corresponding packet routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Stateful inspection requires symmetric enough routing for both directions to share the intended firewall state. Healthy endpoints do not matter when the response path bypasses the inspection VPC.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Opening security-group rules does not restore the stateful inspection path or shared firewall session state.

C:

Logging can reveal the bypass but cannot direct packets through the missing stateful return path.

D:

DNS naming does not solve the specified asymmetric packet forwarding through the stateful firewall.

Question 12

A SaaS vendor hosts a private TCP service behind an NLB. A customer in another AWS account needs access from selected subnets while keeping both VPC CIDR spaces unrouted to each other. The vendor must approve new consumers. Which arrangement is appropriate?

  1. Publish an AWS PrivateLink endpoint service backed by the NLB, permit the consumer principal and require endpoint-connection acceptance.
  2. Enable full bidirectional VPC peering and propagate both entire VPC CIDRs.
  3. Give the consumer account VPN access to the vendor's on-premises firewall.
  4. Attach both VPCs to one Transit Gateway table that advertises all workload routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An NLB-backed PrivateLink endpoint service exposes the specific service through consumer interface endpoints without general VPC CIDR routing. Principal permissions and optional acceptance give the vendor explicit control over which consumers connect.

Incorrect Answers

B:

VPC peering enables general private address reachability between selected VPCs and requires routing. The scenario explicitly prohibits routing the two VPC CIDR spaces into each other, so peering violates that boundary.

C:

A VPN to an unrelated on-premises firewall adds infrastructure and is not the private service-consumer mechanism requested. There is already an AWS-hosted service behind an NLB.

D:

A shared Transit Gateway route domain enables broader inter-VPC routing than the vendor intends. The customer is allowed to consume one service, not gain network-layer access to the vendor VPC.

Question 13

A company serves confidential PDF manuals through a CloudFront distribution backed by a regular S3 bucket. Security has disabled public bucket access, but the distribution still needs read access to the objects. The organization also uses SSE-KMS encryption for the manuals. Which origin access design meets both requirements?

  1. Place an internet-facing Network Load Balancer in front of the S3 bucket and allow its source addresses.
  2. Configure CloudFront origin access control (OAC), a bucket policy restricted to that distribution, and the required KMS permissions.
  3. Convert the bucket to S3 static website hosting and grant public read access for website requests.
  4. Use a Route 53 private hosted zone to make S3 origin requests originate inside the company's VPC.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OAC signs the CloudFront requests to an ordinary S3 bucket origin. The bucket policy can restrict access to the distribution, and suitable KMS permissions permit encrypted object reads. This keeps the documents private at the origin while allowing distribution delivery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An NLB distributes transport connections to supported targets; it cannot act as a native S3 authorization bridge that supplies OAC signatures or KMS access. Adding an internet-facing listener would introduce exposure without solving bucket access.

C:

S3 website endpoints require the website-origin pattern and do not support CloudFront OAC. Making the bucket public would directly contradict the stated confidentiality policy, even if users reached the same manuals through CloudFront.

D:

A private hosted zone changes DNS resolution inside associated VPCs; it does not authorize CloudFront to retrieve private S3 objects or to decrypt SSE-KMS data. The missing control is authenticated origin access, not name resolution.

Question 14

During Direct Connect commissioning, the physical link is up and the 802.1Q VLAN is provisioned, but the private VIF's BGP session remains Idle. The router is configured with an ASN different from the customer ASN specified on the VIF. Which change should be assessed before modifying VPC routing?

  1. Correct the BGP ASN/neighbor configuration and then verify VIF peering status with AWS.
  2. Enable DNSSEC signing for the private hosted zone used by the router.
  3. Add a 0.0.0.0/0 route to the VPC internet gateway for the on-premises prefix.
  4. Change the Direct Connect virtual interface to a public VIF regardless of its private CIDR target.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The link and VLAN are already available, so an Idle BGP session points to the routing-peering configuration. Ensuring the configured peer/customer ASN and neighbor settings match the Direct Connect VIF is a specific prerequisite before downstream VPC routes can work.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNSSEC protects DNS response authenticity and would not negotiate a BGP session. The described failure is a routing-control-plane adjacency, not an inability to trust hostnames.

C:

A default route to an internet gateway neither fixes the BGP neighbor nor establishes a private path from the datacenter. It could introduce unapproved internet forwarding, unrelated to Direct Connect peering.

D:

A public VIF would change the destination scope to AWS public services, but the requirement is a private VPC connection. The customer ASN mismatch must be resolved on the intended VIF instead.

Question 15

A campus DNS server has a conditional forwarder for aws.corp.example pointing at the two private IPs of an inbound Resolver endpoint. Queries time out, although the datacenter-to-VPC route works and the endpoint is Operational. Its security group allows only TCP 443. What is the most likely configuration defect for standard DNS forwarding?

  1. Create a CloudFront distribution for aws.corp.example to handle DNS queries.
  2. Disable all VPC DNS support settings, which are incompatible with inbound endpoints.
  3. Change the inbound endpoint's security group to permit authorized TCP and UDP port 53 from the campus resolvers.
  4. Replace the endpoint with an AWS Global Accelerator TCP listener.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Standard DNS forwarding sends requests to port 53 over UDP and sometimes TCP. The endpoint is Operational and network routes exist, but the explicit security-group rule blocks these packets, so authorizing port 53 from trusted resolvers fixes this missing layer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudFront operates on application content delivered over HTTP, not recursive DNS questions arriving over a private forwarding path. It cannot process the campus resolver's port-53 exchanges.

B:

VPC DNS support is required for normal Amazon-provided DNS behavior and is not incompatible with inbound forwarding. Turning it off would introduce additional resolution faults rather than allowing a denied packet.

D:

Global Accelerator accepts application transport traffic to configured regional endpoints; it is not a DNS Resolver inbound endpoint replacement. The observed denial is on the inbound endpoint's security group.

Question 16

An infrastructure team proposes a CloudFormation update that changes two VPC route tables and modifies an existing NAT gateway. Network policy requires a review of replacements and deletions before production execution. Which deployment step provides that preview without immediately applying the change?

  1. Use Route 53 weighted DNS records to split requests before changing the route tables.
  2. Capture VPC Traffic Mirroring packets and infer the template's future replacement plan.
  3. Run a direct stack update and inspect the event stream after resources change.
  4. Create and review a CloudFormation change set, then execute it only after the reviewers accept its resource changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Change sets describe planned adds, modifications, replacements and removals before deployment. Reviewers can assess the networking impact and execute the selected change set only when approved; the preview is not itself a success guarantee.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS weighting can alter client routing for eligible names but cannot preview or approve CloudFormation changes to subnets, NAT gateways and route tables. It acts on traffic rather than infrastructure-as-code plans.

B:

Traffic Mirroring captures present packet flows from supported ENIs. It has no ability to inspect the future AWS CloudFormation resource change list or predict infrastructure replacement behavior from a template.

C:

A direct stack update begins modifying production immediately, so even if the event stream records a replacement, it does not satisfy the required advance review window.

Question 17

An on-premises DNS server at 192.0.2.53 must resolve names from an AWS private hosted zone associated with the application VPC. A Direct Connect private network path already exists. Existing internet resolvers must not be authoritative for these records. What should the DNS engineer configure?

  1. Create an outbound Resolver endpoint in the VPC and send all public-zone lookups to 192.0.2.53.
  2. Publish the private records in an internet-facing Route 53 public hosted zone.
  3. Create Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint IPs and conditionally forward the private namespace from the on-premises DNS server to them.
  4. Create a Route 53 weighted routing record pointing at 192.0.2.53.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inbound Resolver endpoints give the on-premises DNS server private addresses to query. Conditional forwarding for the private namespace sends those requests through Direct Connect to the VPC Resolver, which can answer from the associated private zone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Outbound Resolver endpoints move queries from a VPC toward external DNS servers. The required flow is the reverse: on-premises resolvers must query the VPC Resolver for private-zone records over an existing private connection.

B:

Public hosted zones publish externally resolvable DNS data and cannot replace a private hosted zone's VPC-scoped record behavior. Exposing internal records would breach the condition that internet resolvers stay out of this lookup path.

D:

Weighted routing chooses among answers inside an authoritative zone; it does not establish a hybrid recursive forwarding path. A record pointing at the DNS server would not allow that server to discover private VPC zone entries.

Question 18

Six application teams repeatedly choose overlapping 10.0.0.0/16 CIDR blocks when creating VPCs in separate accounts. The central network group needs allocation history, policy-driven nonoverlap and visibility into CIDR usage before expanding a Transit Gateway. What should it deploy?

  1. VPC IP Address Manager (IPAM) pools with controlled cross-account allocation and utilization tracking.
  2. A CloudFront origin group that serves the VPC addresses in different Regions.
  3. AWS Network Firewall stateless drop rules that reject every overlapping CIDR at the VPC boundary.
  4. One Route 53 public hosted zone containing the VPC CIDRs as TXT records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Amazon VPC IPAM tracks address pools and allocations, supports automated CIDR assignments, and offers organizational visibility. Using governed pools prevents ad hoc VPC CIDR reuse before routes are joined in a common network domain.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CloudFront origin groups direct web requests toward HTTP origins and have no network-address allocation role. They cannot stop teams from creating colliding RFC1918 ranges across AWS accounts.

C:

Firewall drops might mask broken connectivity after overlap occurs, but they do not prevent conflicting allocations or retain address assignment history. They would also disrupt legitimate traffic rather than plan address space.

D:

TXT records can document values but they do not allocate nonoverlapping address space or monitor live VPC CIDR use. DNS is not a suitable source of truth for IPAM policy enforcement across accounts.

Question 19

A security group ingress rule changed at 02:41 UTC in a regulated AWS account. Investigators need the exact IAM principal and EC2 API operation that made the change. VPC Flow Logs show traffic later but cannot identify the editor. Which audit source should be queried?

  1. Search AWS CloudTrail management events for the relevant EC2 security-group API call and actor identity.
  2. Use only the VPC Flow Logs ACCEPT action for the affected instance.
  3. Read CloudFront cache-hit metrics to infer which administrator removed the rule.
  4. Query the Direct Connect BGP accepted prefix metric to identify the console principal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

CloudTrail management events record supported AWS control-plane API operations and caller identity, allowing investigators to attribute the security group modification by time and resource.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Flow Logs provide network flow metadata and permission outcomes; they do not record which IAM identity issued a separate security-group control-plane change.

C:

CloudFront cache hit rates describe HTTP delivery performance, not which user or assumed role edited an EC2 firewall rule at the cited time.

D:

BGP prefix metrics show route exchange behavior on a network interface and do not identify individual management API authors in a VPC account.

Question 20

Private EC2 batch workers in us-east-1 read terabytes from regional Amazon S3 buckets through a public NAT gateway. Costs show substantial NAT data-processing charges, and the workload needs no public inbound access. What network change targets this cost without changing its S3 API?

  1. Use Direct Connect public VIF for each EC2 worker instead of VPC route tables.
  2. Increase instance CPU reservations because S3 API traffic is a compute-only cost.
  3. Add a supported S3 gateway VPC endpoint and associate the worker subnet route tables with an appropriate endpoint policy.
  4. Add another public NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone and balance S3 requests across both.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An S3 gateway endpoint routes eligible S3 traffic without traversing the public NAT gateway, reducing its per-GB processing usage while retaining private subnet clients and existing APIs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Direct Connect is a hybrid connectivity service; it is not an EC2 instance route substitute for same-Region private S3 access from a VPC.

B:

EC2 CPU reservation does not alter NAT gateway bytes processed or S3 routing. The cost driver is explicit network address translation on the S3 path.

D:

Adding a second NAT gateway adds capacity and fixed cost but still processes eligible S3 bytes through NAT. It does not remove the identified charge mechanism.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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