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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 3

Question 20

Private EC2 batch workers in us-east-1 read terabytes from regional Amazon S3 buckets through a public NAT gateway. Costs show substantial NAT data-processing charges, and the workload needs no public inbound access. What network change targets this cost without changing its S3 API?

  1. Use Direct Connect public VIF for each EC2 worker instead of VPC route tables.
  2. Increase instance CPU reservations because S3 API traffic is a compute-only cost.
  3. Add a supported S3 gateway VPC endpoint and associate the worker subnet route tables with an appropriate endpoint policy.
  4. Add another public NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone and balance S3 requests across both.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An S3 gateway endpoint routes eligible S3 traffic without traversing the public NAT gateway, reducing its per-GB processing usage while retaining private subnet clients and existing APIs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Direct Connect is a hybrid connectivity service; it is not an EC2 instance route substitute for same-Region private S3 access from a VPC.

B:

EC2 CPU reservation does not alter NAT gateway bytes processed or S3 routing. The cost driver is explicit network address translation on the S3 path.

D:

Adding a second NAT gateway adds capacity and fixed cost but still processes eligible S3 bytes through NAT. It does not remove the identified charge mechanism.

Question 21

A regulated web app uses CloudFront with a custom hostname and an HTTPS viewer certificate. Security finds that the cache behavior permits HTTP viewers and that its custom origin is contacted over HTTP. Policy requires encrypted traffic on both hops. Which correction is complete?

  1. Create a Transit Gateway private route to the origin without changing TLS settings.
  2. Enable only an HTTPS-only viewer protocol policy and leave HTTP between CloudFront and the origin unchanged.
  3. Configure HTTPS-only or appropriate redirect on the viewer behavior AND an HTTPS origin protocol policy with a valid origin certificate.
  4. Enable S3 bucket versioning, which automatically encrypts both connection hops.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CloudFront viewer policy can require HTTPS for clients, while the origin protocol policy and trusted certificate enforce HTTPS from CloudFront to the custom origin. Both changes are needed because the scenario identifies cleartext on each hop.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transit Gateway routing concerns AWS private packet forwarding. It neither upgrades an existing HTTP protocol exchange to TLS nor configures CloudFront's viewer or origin policies.

B:

HTTPS viewer enforcement protects only the client-to-CloudFront hop. With the origin still contacted using HTTP, the second link remains unencrypted, so the strict two-hop requirement is unmet.

D:

Versioning helps recover earlier versions of S3 objects; it does not negotiate TLS for viewer requests or CloudFront-to-origin connections. The origin here is a custom HTTPS server.

Question 22

Two VPCs are attached to one Transit Gateway. Attachment VPC-A is associated with route table Red, which has only a route to shared services. VPC-B advertises its CIDR into table Blue but not Red. Despite VPC-A subnet routes to the Transit Gateway, VPC-A cannot reach B. What is the decisive missing control?

  1. Attach an extra public internet gateway to VPC-B for private packet transit.
  2. Add an allowed route or propagation for VPC-B CIDR in table Red, the route table associated with the VPC-A attachment.
  3. Add a route to table Blue only and rely on cross-table propagation to occur automatically.
  4. Increase the VPC-A route-table MTU setting to make the missing CIDR appear.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transit Gateway looks up the destination in the route table associated with the source attachment. Table Red lacks B CIDR, so a route there is necessary for forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An internet gateway provides public VPC connectivity and does not populate Transit Gateway private attachment routes or solve Red table isolation policy.

C:

The B prefix already exists in Blue, but Blue is not the associated table for A packets. Routes do not magically become visible in every gateway table.

D:

MTU influences packet size rather than TGW route-table association and propagation. It cannot create the missing prefix in the actual forwarding lookup table.

Question 23

Several EC2 instances in VPC-App must resolve corp.internal names that exist only on the company's datacenter DNS servers. An outbound Resolver endpoint and target IPs have been created in a shared-services VPC, but queries from VPC-App still return NXDOMAIN. Which missing configuration most directly routes the queries to the datacenter?

  1. Add an inbound Resolver endpoint in the application VPC and tell EC2 instances to target it.
  2. Add a CloudFront cache behavior for corp.internal requests.
  3. Create a Resolver forwarding rule for corp.internal that uses the outbound endpoint and associate that rule with VPC-App.
  4. Create a Route 53 public hosted zone named corp.internal with empty records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The endpoint alone is insufficient: the named rule specifies the forwarded namespace and external target servers, and VPC association tells VPC-App's Resolver to apply it. This completes the missing routing step.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inbound endpoints handle DNS questions arriving from outside AWS, not the stipulated EC2-to-datacenter resolution direction. Pointing EC2 at one changes the architecture without connecting the forwarding rule to VPC-App.

B:

CloudFront cache policies operate on HTTP object delivery. They cannot forward Route 53 Resolver questions for corp.internal or influence VPC DNS resolver rule associations. These are separate protocols and services.

D:

A public hosted zone would not forward requests for an on-premises namespace to the authoritative datacenter servers. It could instead create a misleading DNS source with missing records.

Question 24

A customer's primary Direct Connect circuit is preferred for on-premises access to VPCs, with Site-to-Site VPN as backup. The private prefix length is identical on both paths and engineers need controlled failover if Direct Connect withdraws its route. What should they validate during the implementation?

  1. That one VPN tunnel is left unconfigured to avoid equal-cost routing.
  2. That CloudFront invalidation clears every BGP session after a Direct Connect failure.
  3. That a Route 53 weighted DNS record changes the on-premises router's BGP next hop.
  4. That routing attributes and route propagation make Direct Connect preferred and the VPN reachable as the alternate when its route is withdrawn.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For equal prefixes, the relevant routing policies determine which hybrid path is used. The controlled test should withdraw Direct Connect reachability and observe the VPN route and actual traffic take over without an incorrect longer-lived static path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Leaving one of a Site-to-Site VPN's two tunnels unused reduces resilience. It does not make Direct Connect the primary path and creates a second avoidable outage mode during VPN endpoint maintenance.

B:

CloudFront invalidations remove edge-cached HTTP objects; they are unrelated to BGP routing convergence. They cannot cause a private Direct Connect path to fail over into a VPN.

C:

Route 53 record selection affects DNS answers, not BGP path preference between an on-premises network and a VPC. A DNS failover policy would not validate the desired underlying hybrid routing behavior.

Question 25

An EC2 application server cannot open TCP port 443 on a database proxy ENI within the same AWS Region. Route tables, security groups, and network ACLs are managed by different teams. They need a non-packet-transmitting analysis that identifies the exact AWS component blocking the intended path. Which tool best fits?

  1. VPC Traffic Mirroring, which records every denied packet before any security-group decision.
  2. VPC Reachability Analyzer between the source and destination resources with the TCP protocol and destination port.
  3. AWS CloudTrail API history restricted to successful ConsoleLogin events.
  4. Amazon CloudFront real-time logs for client HTTPS requests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reachability Analyzer performs static configuration analysis from an AWS resource source to a destination. A failed path report can identify which security group, NACL or routing component blocks port 443 without generating application requests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Traffic Mirroring captures supported ENI traffic sent toward an analysis target. It is not a static reachability engine, and traffic denied before the mirror source may not be mirrored as assumed.

C:

CloudTrail can show past rule edits, but simply reading ConsoleLogin events does not evaluate the current network path between the two ENIs or identify which routing or packet-filtering component blocks TCP 443.

D:

CloudFront request logs describe traffic served through a CloudFront distribution. The direct ENI-to-ENI proxy connection is not traversing that delivery service, so those logs cannot assess the blocking VPC component.

Question 26

A compliance engineer configures AWS Network Firewall to reject a test outbound domain. VPC Flow Logs show blocked flows but do not indicate the Suricata stateful rule that caused denial. Auditors need a retained firewall policy event with the matching rule identifier. Which log type should be enabled?

  1. Enable AWS Network Firewall alert logging to an approved protected destination and correlate the rule match.
  2. Enable only S3 server access logging for the VPC application bucket.
  3. Increase the CloudFront origin request cache TTL and inspect its cache status.
  4. Use public Route 53 query logging and assume it contains all firewall signature decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network Firewall alert logs can record rule-related inspection events from the firewall policy, providing evidence distinct from aggregate VPC traffic permit or deny metadata.

Incorrect Answers

B:

S3 server access logs describe bucket object requests rather than stateful network firewall signature decisions for outbound VPC TCP connections.

C:

CloudFront TTL adjustments change HTTP caching behavior and cannot emit Network Firewall detection rule IDs for arbitrary routed egress flows.

D:

Public DNS query logging records authoritative DNS request details, not firewall rule evaluation or whether a Suricata stateful policy denied the packet stream.

Question 27

A new Direct Connect private virtual interface reports the physical circuit as Available but its IPv4 BGP session stays Down. The customer router uses VLAN 310 while the VIF configuration expects VLAN 311; addresses and peer ASNs otherwise match. What adjustment is required before private prefixes can be exchanged?

  1. Raise the VPC security-group outbound limit to permit all IPv4 prefixes.
  2. Add CloudFront origin access control to the virtual interface.
  3. Publish the VPC prefix as a Route 53 public TXT record.
  4. Configure the customer-side 802.1Q VLAN to match the virtual interface VLAN 311.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A Direct Connect VIF uses the configured VLAN for its BGP peering traffic. Mismatched customer tagging prevents frames from reaching the proper virtual interface despite physical link status.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VPC security groups filter resource network traffic after routing exists; they do not repair the underlying 802.1Q mismatch preventing BGP adjacency establishment.

B:

CloudFront origin access control authorizes CDN origin requests to S3, not Ethernet VLAN tagging or Direct Connect BGP route exchange at the customer port.

C:

A DNS TXT record only publishes text metadata; it cannot adjust a Direct Connect virtual-interface VLAN or form the missing BGP neighbor session.

Question 28

A central platform group finds that new development VPCs in six accounts repeatedly request overlapping /16 CIDRs, blocking Transit Gateway growth. The team needs governed hierarchical allocation and visibility into already assigned ranges. Which AWS capability addresses the root problem?

  1. Use one shared network ACL to make overlapping private CIDRs unique.
  2. Add more Elastic IPs to each VPC instance so its private CIDR stops overlapping.
  3. Establish AWS VPC IP Address Manager pools with allocation controls and organizational visibility.
  4. Create a CloudFront origin group for every new VPC to avoid overlap.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

VPC IPAM tracks and assigns address-space allocations from managed pools across accounts and Regions. It helps prevent new overlapping prefixes before network attachments and routing are created.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A NACL filters packets according to address rules, but cannot make duplicate private CIDR blocks distinguishable as routes in a shared network topology.

B:

Elastic IPs affect eligible public addressing; they do not rewrite the underlying overlapping VPC private CIDRs or provide systematic allocation governance.

D:

CloudFront origin groups choose HTTP origins and cannot manage private VPC CIDR allocations across accounts or resolve overlapping layer-three prefixes.

Question 29

A hospital has two 10 Gbps Direct Connect links, but both terminate on one router and in the same Direct Connect location. The resiliency review requires survival of an entire location failure and independent network devices. What architectural correction is required?

  1. Increase the two links to 100 Gbps while retaining the same router and location.
  2. Create multiple private virtual interfaces on one of the existing physical links only.
  3. Lower the BGP keepalive timer on the single router without changing physical placement.
  4. Use independent Direct Connect connections terminating on distinct devices in more than one Direct Connect location.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS maximum resiliency patterns use redundant connections and devices across locations, removing the shared physical and facility failure domains that the hospital explicitly cannot tolerate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Greater throughput does not eliminate the single router or single location outage risk. A faster common failure domain still fails the required entire-location survival test.

B:

Additional VIFs over a single physical circuit may separate routing sessions but do not protect against the facility or device failure affecting every underlying path.

C:

BGP timers influence routing convergence, but cannot maintain connectivity when every physical path terminates at the failed facility or shared router.

Question 30

A company has a dedicated Direct Connect circuit with a public virtual interface that reaches AWS public service addresses. Its new requirement is private IP routing to multiple VPCs attached to a Transit Gateway through a Direct Connect gateway. Which VIF type must be provisioned?

  1. A CloudFront distribution attached to the Transit Gateway through an internet-facing ALB.
  2. A transit virtual interface associated with a Direct Connect gateway and eligible Transit Gateway.
  3. A second public virtual interface advertising all RFC1918 VPC prefixes publicly.
  4. An S3 gateway endpoint attached directly to the Direct Connect physical port.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transit VIFs are designed for private connectivity to Transit Gateways through a Direct Connect gateway. A public VIF does not become the private transit attachment merely by advertising new prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudFront and ALBs serve application delivery functions; they do not create Direct Connect transit virtual interfaces or route RFC1918 prefixes into multiple attached VPCs.

C:

A public VIF accesses public AWS service IPs, not private routed reachability to a transit gateway VPC fabric. Advertising private CIDRs there does not implement the requested association.

D:

Gateway endpoints are VPC-level route targets for supported AWS services such as S3, not VLAN or BGP virtual interfaces on a Direct Connect circuit.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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