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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 6

Question 50

A packet capture is needed to compare TCP sequence numbers and retransmission timing for a supported EC2 ENI. Default VPC Flow Logs show only aggregates. Security authorizes a narrowly scoped out-of-band capture to a protected sensor. Which feature produces the required packet evidence?

  1. Increase VPC Flow Logs retention and expect it to add packet sequence numbers.
  2. Use CloudTrail lookup events for the application hostname.
  3. Configure an AWS Config managed rule for unused security groups.
  4. Create a VPC Traffic Mirroring session with a selective filter and approved monitoring target.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Traffic Mirroring replicates eligible ENI packets to a monitoring destination, so analysts can inspect timing and sequence behavior while bounding sensitive capture scope with filters.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Longer retention preserves existing aggregate fields but does not convert flow logs into a packet-capture stream with ordered TCP segments and retransmission details.

B:

CloudTrail records supported AWS management activity and cannot reconstruct per-packet TCP sequence timing for an application already running inside an ENI.

C:

AWS Config evaluates resource configurations rather than capturing transport-layer packet contents. It does not satisfy a specific out-of-band network forensic capture requirement.

Question 51

A public application receives bursts of 300 HTTP login attempts per minute from individual source IPs. The security team wants to throttle only the /login path while allowing normal /health and static asset requests. Which AWS security rule best matches this layer-seven condition?

  1. Add a subnet NACL that blocks every IP sending any TCP packets in a five-minute period.
  2. Modify the Direct Connect virtual interface BGP prefix limit for all partner networks.
  3. Enable a CloudFront origin failover group but leave HTTP request filtering unchanged.
  4. Use an AWS WAF rate-based rule with a scope-down statement matching /login and the required client grouping.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS WAF rate-based rules count matching HTTP requests over a configured window. A scope-down condition can focus the rate limit on /login without penalizing unrelated site paths.

Incorrect Answers

A:

NACLs evaluate packet addresses and ports, not the HTTP URL path or a client-specific web request threshold. Broad network denial would affect unrelated application requests.

B:

BGP prefix quotas govern route advertisement rather than HTTP login attempt rates. Changing Direct Connect controls cannot enforce per-client application-layer request limits.

C:

CloudFront origin failover handles selected origin errors; it does not classify high-rate login requests or apply the requested scoped abuse mitigation.

Question 52

A database subnet NACL permits outbound TCP traffic to a remote approved application, but it denies ephemeral inbound reply ports. The EC2 database security group is stateful and correctly allows the application flow. What most directly explains intermittent failures on return traffic?

  1. Security groups require a separate inbound rule for every ephemeral reply even after outbound connections are allowed.
  2. Route 53 automatically blocks all return packets when a private hosted zone exists.
  3. Transit Gateway should be replaced with CloudFront because NACLs cannot evaluate any IP packets.
  4. NACLs are stateless, so the subnet needs explicit inbound return-port permissions for the permitted connections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A subnet NACL evaluates both directions independently and does not remember an established flow. Missing ephemeral reply permissions can drop packets even when the resource security group permits the session.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security groups are stateful and generally permit established return traffic automatically. This particular denial occurs at the separate stateless subnet filter, not the resource interface state.

B:

DNS zone association selects name-resolution answers and has no mechanism to block established TCP return packets purely because a private namespace exists.

C:

CloudFront is a content-delivery service, and NACLs legitimately filter IP traffic. Replacing the network path would not address the explicit missing stateless return rule.

Question 53

The networking account owns a Route 53 private hosted zone for shared.internal. A workload VPC in another account must resolve the zone, but its VPC is not associated and no public records are allowed. Which cross-account step is required?

  1. Authorize the other-account VPC association from the zone owner, then associate that VPC with the private zone.
  2. Create a public NS delegation for shared.internal that points at the private zone name servers.
  3. Create a Transit Gateway attachment and assume all its VPCs share the same private DNS zones automatically.
  4. Add the workload account to the same AWS Organization and make no Route 53 association changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cross-account private hosted zone use needs explicit authorization by the owner and a VPC association in the consumer account. Routing connectivity alone does not imply DNS visibility.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Public NS delegation would expose or misrepresent an intentionally internal namespace and does not perform a VPC association. Private hosted zones are scoped by associated VPCs.

C:

A transit attachment affects IP routing, not which private DNS hosted zones a VPC Resolver can answer. The stated issue is absent zone association.

D:

Organizational membership can enable governance and sharing workflows but does not silently associate every private hosted zone to all member VPCs. The explicit authorization remains necessary.

Question 54

Two Direct Connect private VIFs carry the same on-premises CIDR toward an AWS Region. After a router maintenance window, network engineers see a different outbound path even though both BGP sessions are Established. The company intends active/passive behavior. What evidence should guide the next correction?

  1. Compare ALB target-group health check paths in the destination VPC only.
  2. Check local-preference communities, advertised prefix lengths and AS_PATH attributes on the two VIFs before adjusting route preference.
  3. Inspect whether S3 objects served by CloudFront have the correct Cache-Control max-age values.
  4. Disable both AWS VIF sessions so that AWS re-advertises the private prefixes over the internet.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For Direct Connect private routing, longest prefix, AWS route preference communities, and AS_PATH can influence the selected path after a BGP session is up. Comparing these attributes addresses unexpected active/passive choice instead of assuming peering health guarantees path preference.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ALB health checks determine which application targets receive traffic after packets arrive. The reported discrepancy occurs in the hybrid route chosen between two VIFs, before target health is relevant.

C:

CloudFront cache policy might affect page performance but does not participate in Direct Connect BGP best-path selection for a private hybrid CIDR. It cannot explain why two established VIFs choose a different network path.

D:

Taking down both sessions removes the available private connectivity; AWS does not simply replace their route exchange with equivalent internet advertisements. That would worsen availability and obscure the intended policy difference.

Question 55

A forensic team captures packet copies from EC2 ENIs using VPC Traffic Mirroring. A proposed design delivers all payloads to an unrestricted third-party internet host and keeps them forever. Which review finding should block this proposal?

  1. Packet capture can contain sensitive payload and identity metadata, so scope, encryption, recipient access and retention require controls.
  2. Packet mirrors contain only DNS names and never payloads.
  3. The capture destination cannot affect confidentiality because it is a monitoring target.
  4. Retention is irrelevant whenever the source EC2 security group is stateful.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Mirrored packets can reveal regulated content, and broad unmanaged export is not equivalent to low-detail flow logging.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Traffic Mirroring can provide packet-level contents, not only domain summaries.

C:

Monitoring endpoints can expose data if they are not properly restricted.

D:

Network security groups do not govern downstream packet archive lifecycle.

Question 56

A domain has Route 53 DNSSEC signing enabled. After an emergency key replacement, validating resolvers return SERVFAIL while nonvalidating resolvers can fetch the A record. The registrar still publishes a DS value for the old key. What corrects the broken trust chain?

  1. Increase the A record TTL to keep stale addresses in recursive DNS caches.
  2. Enable Route 53 weighted routing so validators ignore the parent DS record.
  3. Publish the correct current DS material at the parent and verify DNSSEC validation.
  4. Delete all DNSSEC signatures from the child zone but leave the stale parent DS record.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A stale parent DS can point to key material that no longer signs the zone; validators reject that broken chain. Correcting parent delegation trust material restores verifiable signatures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A record TTL controls caching of address data, not cryptographic consistency between parent DS and child DNSKEY and RRSIG records. Cache changes cannot repair the trust chain.

B:

Weighted DNS determines which eligible response may be returned, but validating resolvers still enforce DNSSEC authenticity. It does not bypass a mismatched DS for a signed delegation.

D:

Removing child signatures while preserving a parent DS that asserts a secure delegation leaves validators expecting a valid chain. It worsens rather than fixes authentication failure.

Question 57

AWS is performing routine maintenance on one of a company’s two Site-to-Site VPN tunnels. Both BGP peers are configured, but the customer gateway sets a permanent higher local preference for the tunnel being maintained, overriding AWS MED guidance. What should be corrected for intended maintenance failover?

  1. Align customer-side weight and local-preference settings across tunnels so the healthy tunnel can be preferred using AWS maintenance signals.
  2. Set the higher local preference even higher to prevent the second tunnel from receiving traffic.
  3. Replace all virtual network interfaces with CloudFront behavior path rules.
  4. Add a public application load balancer to both tunnel endpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

AWS can advertise a lower MED on the alternate tunnel during endpoint updates. Higher-priority customer local preference must not countermand that choice if maintenance failover is expected.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Increasing preference toward the affected tunnel strengthens the existing wrong path choice and can leave traffic directed at a tunnel that is temporarily unavailable.

C:

CloudFront path behaviors route HTTP requests to origins. They cannot influence customer gateway BGP local preference or choose the surviving IPsec tunnel.

D:

An ALB handles web application traffic, not the IPsec tunnel BGP routing policy on the customer gateway device. It would not address the route preference.

Question 58

A Route 53 public hosted zone has DNSSEC signing enabled, but validating public resolvers fail authenticity checks after the domain registrar's DS record was replaced with a stale DS value that no longer matches the active key-signing key. The DNS records and name servers are otherwise reachable. What should the administrator restore?

  1. Disable all security groups on the VPC that hosts the associated web application.
  2. Create a private Resolver outbound endpoint for the public domain and force internet users to query it.
  3. Configure an ALB TLS listener with a self-signed certificate for DNSSEC verification.
  4. Publish the correct DS chain-of-trust information at the parent zone through the registrar, using the active key-signing key details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DNSSEC validation relies on the delegation chain from the parent zone to the signed child. An incorrect DS record prevents validating resolvers from authenticating the signed zone despite normal DNS server reachability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security groups govern instance and interface packet flow, but the user reports a signed public-zone chain-of-trust failure, not blocked network traffic to an application in a VPC.

B:

Resolver outbound endpoints forward private VPC DNS questions to external resolvers. They are unrelated to the public parent-zone DNSSEC DS record used by validating internet resolvers.

C:

ALB TLS certificates identify HTTPS endpoints, which is a separate protocol from DNSSEC record signing. A self-signed application certificate would not fix the registrar's DNSSEC delegation chain.

Question 59

A research laboratory operates a dedicated Direct Connect connection and needs assurance that planned maintenance of its main BGP session will move private routing to its second independent link. Operators want an AWS-supported controlled failure exercise. Which service feature should they use?

  1. Run the Direct Connect Resiliency Toolkit failover test to bring down the selected BGP session and observe the alternate VIF.
  2. Trigger a CloudFront invalidation to force private route rediscovery.
  3. Stop EC2 instances in the connected VPC and assume that simulates loss of the private circuit.
  4. Delete the production Direct Connect gateway before testing the backup link.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The Direct Connect Resiliency Toolkit supports a controlled BGP failover test that validates routing through a redundant connection. It tests the stated failure while preserving designed connectivity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CloudFront invalidation purges cached web content and cannot withdraw a Direct Connect BGP session or demonstrate alternate private VIF reachability during router maintenance.

C:

Stopping workloads tests application availability and compute resilience, not hybrid route failover; it may cause outage without exercising the intended BGP path transition.

D:

Deleting the gateway would disrupt the routing architecture rather than simulate one path failure. It also risks losing the configuration needed for a valid recovery exercise.

Question 60

A CloudFormation change set for a production network stack proposes replacing an existing NAT gateway as well as adding a new private subnet route. The change request authorized only the route. What should the engineer do before executing?

  1. Stop the change, inspect the replacement-causing property and revise the template until the change set matches the approved route-only scope.
  2. Execute the change set because CloudFormation always preserves connectivity for replaced networking resources.
  3. Enable more VPC Flow Logs and assume they will prevent a NAT replacement automatically.
  4. Publish a new Route 53 alias record for the NAT gateway to avoid any infrastructure change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Change sets expose proposed resource replacement before execution. An unauthorized NAT replacement is a material network change, so the template should be corrected and regenerated before production.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CloudFormation can replace resources when property changes require it, potentially changing network behavior. It does not guarantee a service-transparent swap of a NAT gateway.

C:

Flow Logs provide network traffic metadata, not an approval gate that blocks infrastructure replacement. The disclosed replacement must be addressed in the planned CloudFormation update.

D:

DNS alias routing does not provide a way to preserve or refer to a NAT gateway replacement in a VPC private subnet route table.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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