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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 5

Question 40

The security team reviews a quarterly spreadsheet of protected AWS accounts, but the last inventory closed before a newly acquired business created three internet-facing ALBs. An audit now finds no organization WAF policy attached to those new resources even though the team called the quarter's report complete. What weakness of the current audit process directly explains the gap?

  1. Without DNS query logging, IP flow metadata alone may not identify which domain name prompted a suspicious connection
  2. Using VPC Flow Logs alone to identify the IAM principal who changed an API configuration leaves the change attribution gap unresolved
  3. Collecting only flow summaries when packet-level evidence is required can leave the incident timeline unresolved
  4. Relying on a static inventory from the previous quarter can miss resources added after the last manual security audit

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The newly deployed ALBs never entered the quarter-end inventory, so a one-time resource list cannot establish current Firewall Manager coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a risk in route 53 resolver query logging security visibility: Resolver query logs provide DNS request observations for associated VPC resolution paths, distinct from network-flow and API change logs. It does not account for the firewall manager organization compliance audit fault stated in this incident.

B:

That outcome depends on cloudtrail network api audit, whose mechanism is different: CloudTrail records supported AWS management API activity, including the identity and request parameters behind configuration changes, rather than packet payloads. The reported defect concerns firewall manager organization compliance audit.

C:

Traffic Mirroring copies supported packet traffic to a capture destination, whereas flow logs provide aggregate network metadata. That explains the separate vpc traffic mirroring security packet evidence issue, not this demonstrated firewall manager organization compliance audit failure.

Question 41

A developer chose a small EC2 instance that supports ENA but offers a lower network bandwidth limit than the workload requires. Packet loss and throughput plateau persist while CPU utilization is modest. Which intervention addresses the instance-side network capacity constraint?

  1. Increase an unrelated S3 bucket replication frequency.
  2. Create new DNS records for the existing ENI primary private address.
  3. Turn on a CloudFront distribution for database packets transported directly over the VPC.
  4. Select a suitable ENA-compatible instance size or family with published network performance meeting the target.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Enhanced networking capability and actual bandwidth limits depend on the EC2 instance type and size. Choosing suitable capacity targets the documented throughput plateau despite available CPU.

Incorrect Answers

A:

S3 replication moves objects between storage locations and has no connection to the current EC2 instance network bandwidth ceiling or its packet processing requirements.

B:

DNS mapping does not increase ENA queues, packets per second or published instance throughput. The private address already resolves and traffic reaches the instance.

C:

CloudFront is an HTTP content distribution network, not a mechanism to increase an EC2 ENI bandwidth limit for arbitrary internal database sessions.

Question 42

A research workload needs low-latency inter-node communication capabilities beyond ordinary TCP instance networking.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. The allocation dashboard shows non-overlapping prefixes and a scale test creates the required number of new ENIs without address exhaustion
  2. Cost usage data shows reduced NAT bytes for S3 traffic while a private subnet can still access only approved S3 resources
  3. The HPC network benchmark demonstrates the required inter-node latency and bandwidth with the selected EFA-enabled instances
  4. CDN hit ratio and user latency improve while cost analysis shows the expected tradeoff against direct regional origin delivery

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The HPC network benchmark demonstrates the required inter-node latency and bandwidth with the selected EFA-enabled instances. That is relevant because elastic Fabric Adapter offers specialized OS-bypass networking for supported HPC workloads; it is not a generic internet-facing load balancer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate ipam and vpc cidr growth planning. The case instead needs evidence for elastic fabric adapter hpc placement: The HPC network benchmark demonstrates the required inter-node latency and bandwidth with the selected EFA-enabled instances.

B:

This would validate nat gateway data-processing cost reduction. The case instead needs evidence for elastic fabric adapter hpc placement: The HPC network benchmark demonstrates the required inter-node latency and bandwidth with the selected EFA-enabled instances.

D:

This would validate cloudfront global egress optimization. The case instead needs evidence for elastic fabric adapter hpc placement: The HPC network benchmark demonstrates the required inter-node latency and bandwidth with the selected EFA-enabled instances.

Question 43

Security policy requires network teams to find VPC security groups that permit 0.0.0.0/0 to TCP port 22, and to record noncompliant resources across multiple accounts. The task is to detect drift, not immediately change or delete any group. What AWS mechanism should be used?

  1. Enable CloudFront access logs for the instances behind the security groups.
  2. Create a Site-to-Site VPN and move port 22 over the encrypted tunnel.
  3. Evaluate recorded security-group configurations with an AWS Config rule and aggregate compliance results.
  4. Set a single CloudWatch alarm on a NAT gateway's BytesOutToDestination metric.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

AWS Config evaluates resource configuration against rules and reports COMPLIANT/NON_COMPLIANT results. When configured with appropriate recording and aggregation, it supplies an auditable inventory of security-group exposure without prematurely modifying the groups.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudFront access logging covers supported HTTP distribution requests, not the ingress rule properties of arbitrary EC2 security groups. It cannot establish whether SSH is globally allowed on a group.

B:

A VPN provides an alternative network path but cannot detect which existing security groups expose port 22. It also changes infrastructure when the requirement explicitly asks only to identify noncompliance.

D:

NAT gateway traffic metrics reflect translated egress activity; they do not inspect a security group's source CIDR or port 22 ingress permission. A traffic alarm is not a configuration-compliance assessment.

Question 44

A central security account manages WAF protections for CloudFront distributions owned by 45 application accounts. New distributions appear weekly, and policy requires each in-scope distribution to inherit the approved managed rule baseline without engineers configuring it manually. What service should operate the organizational policy?

  1. One manually maintained set of WAF web ACLs distributed through a wiki page.
  2. Amazon VPC IPAM address pools for all CloudFront distributions.
  3. Gateway Load Balancer endpoints in every application's private subnets.
  4. AWS Firewall Manager with an organization-level WAF policy scoped to the relevant accounts and resources.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Firewall Manager centrally applies and audits supported protections across an AWS Organizations scope, including newly added eligible CloudFront distributions. Its policy selection can express the intended organizational baseline instead of relying on each application owner.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A wiki can document desired controls but cannot enforce protection on new resources. The exact failure is dynamic organizational coverage, where manual configuration leaves new distributions outside the baseline.

B:

IPAM governs network address allocation and monitoring. It does not create WAF web ACL rules or enforce CloudFront application protection as resources are added to member accounts.

C:

Gateway Load Balancer endpoints insert network appliances into VPC routing. CloudFront web application protection needs WAF policy association, not east-west VPC appliance insertion into customer data paths.

Question 45

A database connection from one EC2 ENI to another fails. Reachability Analyzer reports that a particular NACL denies TCP 5432 on the modeled path, but the team also wants proof that the database process is listening after remediation. Which workflow is technically sound?

  1. Treat a Reachability Analyzer result of Reachable as proof that the database accepted a SQL login.
  2. Replace every NACL in the VPC with a public security group rule for all ports.
  3. Create an ACM certificate for the two EC2 instance names to modify static reachability.
  4. Fix the named network configuration block and then run a real TCP connection test to confirm the application listener.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reachability Analyzer models supported network configuration rather than transmitting data-plane packets. It can identify the NACL block, but only a live test can confirm database listener behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A modeled Reachable result means configuration permits a possible path, not that a database process is running or that user credentials are accepted.

B:

Removing every NACL and exposing all ports is far broader than the specific diagnosed denial and would violate least-privilege network policy.

C:

TLS certificates can secure a connection after it exists, but do not unblock the specific NACL decision that the configuration analyzer identified.

Question 46

A security analyst must retain source/destination IPs, ports, packet counts and ACCEPT/REJECT decisions for traffic on the ENIs of a sensitive database subnet. Full payload capture is neither authorized nor required. Which AWS-native feature should the analyst enable?

  1. Configure AWS CloudTrail data-event logging for the database subnet network interfaces.
  2. Enable VPC Flow Logs for the subnet or its ENIs with the required fields and an approved retention destination.
  3. Create a Route 53 Resolver query logging configuration for the subnet DNS names.
  4. Create a Traffic Mirroring session from the database ENIs to a packet collector.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

VPC Flow Logs emit IP-flow metadata, such as source and destination addresses, ports, counts and action, and can send it to a controlled log destination. Choosing the appropriate capture scope supplies the evidence without packet bodies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudTrail primarily records supported AWS API activity and actor context. It does not provide the accepted/rejected per-flow records for packets reaching database ENIs in the subnet.

C:

Resolver query logs show DNS query names and responses; successful or rejected transport connections to database addresses are not DNS queries. Even a resolved hostname says nothing about packet acceptance by a subnet policy.

D:

Traffic Mirroring duplicates packet data to an inspection appliance and raises a different content-handling burden. It is unnecessary when the stated evidence consists of flow metadata and allow/deny actions, not packet payloads.

Question 47

A training provider distributes a paid video course as hundreds of HLS segments. After one subscriber signs in, the browser must retrieve all segments without rewriting each media URL. Unauthorized visitors must be denied by CloudFront. Which access mechanism best fits?

  1. Use a Route 53 weighted record to direct subscriber traffic only to the video origin.
  2. Issue CloudFront signed cookies scoped to the protected media paths and use trusted key groups.
  3. Generate a different signed URL for each segment and change every HLS reference before playback.
  4. Enable a shared CloudFront cache key containing the subscriber session cookie and allow public reads.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

CloudFront signed cookies authorize an entire selected path set while leaving playlist and segment URLs unchanged. The key group validates the signature, so a browser can retrieve many protected objects after authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Weighted DNS determines which address a resolver receives, not whether a specific browser is entitled to retrieve protected segments. It cannot replace CloudFront private-content authorization.

C:

Signed URLs can secure individual objects, but the stated application must preserve existing HLS segment addresses. Rewriting hundreds of URLs introduces avoidable complexity that signed cookies explicitly address.

D:

Including a session cookie in the cache key varies caching; it does not independently enforce private-content signature validation. Public origin access would also permit bypassing the CloudFront authorization control.

Question 48

A public website at portal.example.net resolves to an internet IP for most users. After creating a private hosted zone example.net associated with VPC-A, EC2 instances in VPC-A fail to resolve portal.example.net although its public A record is correct. The private zone has no portal record. What explains the observed failure?

  1. Route 53 DNSSEC prevents a VPC resolver from answering ordinary public A records when a private zone exists.
  2. The VPC resolver chooses the matching private zone and does not fall back to the public record when its private match lacks the requested name.
  3. The public A record becomes invalid whenever a private zone with the same suffix exists in any AWS account.
  4. The private hosted zone automatically creates a global public CNAME that invalidates all subdomains.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A matching associated private hosted zone can shadow public names inside that VPC. Missing records there cause private-side negative responses rather than an automatic retry against public DNS.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNSSEC signature validation is unrelated to the described split-view private-zone shadowing. No signing or trust-chain failure is mentioned; the internal namespace lacks the answer.

C:

The public record remains authoritative on the internet and continues to work for clients outside the associated VPC. Only queries taking the private zone path are affected.

D:

Creating a private zone does not publish a global CNAME or modify the parent DNS delegation. The failure is local Resolver selection, not new public record creation.

Question 49

A VPC Flow Log record shows ACCEPT for a client-to-proxy TCP 443 flow, but the proxy application returns an HTTP 500 error. An engineer asserts that ACCEPT proves end-to-end HTTPS success and proposes changing route tables. Which conclusion is justified?

  1. The ACCEPT action certifies that TLS and every HTTP response completed successfully.
  2. The HTTP 500 necessarily means the subnet NACL rejected the TCP session.
  3. All VPC Flow Logs include complete decrypted HTTP request and response bodies for troubleshooting.
  4. The network permitted the observed flow, but application logs or HTTP metrics are needed to investigate the failed transaction.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Flow Logs report network flow metadata and allowed or rejected status. ACCEPT does not attest to application processing, so the HTTP 500 requires higher-layer evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An ACCEPT record can coexist with failed TLS handshakes or application errors. It does not measure final HTTP status codes or database dependency health.

B:

The subnet NACL did not necessarily reject this specific accepted flow, and the app explicitly returned 500. Modifying routes without a network diagnosis risks new disruption.

C:

Flow Logs are not full packet captures and do not expose decrypted HTTPS payloads. They cannot replace application access logs or packet-level instrumentation.

Question 50

A packet capture is needed to compare TCP sequence numbers and retransmission timing for a supported EC2 ENI. Default VPC Flow Logs show only aggregates. Security authorizes a narrowly scoped out-of-band capture to a protected sensor. Which feature produces the required packet evidence?

  1. Increase VPC Flow Logs retention and expect it to add packet sequence numbers.
  2. Use CloudTrail lookup events for the application hostname.
  3. Configure an AWS Config managed rule for unused security groups.
  4. Create a VPC Traffic Mirroring session with a selective filter and approved monitoring target.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Traffic Mirroring replicates eligible ENI packets to a monitoring destination, so analysts can inspect timing and sequence behavior while bounding sensitive capture scope with filters.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Longer retention preserves existing aggregate fields but does not convert flow logs into a packet-capture stream with ordered TCP segments and retransmission details.

B:

CloudTrail records supported AWS management activity and cannot reconstruct per-packet TCP sequence timing for an application already running inside an ENI.

C:

AWS Config evaluates resource configurations rather than capturing transport-layer packet contents. It does not satisfy a specific out-of-band network forensic capture requirement.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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