Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
2 products

You save $34.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Lectures
$74.99 $109.98

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 12

Question 110

Newly launched Linux instances regularly lack the approved CloudWatch agent configuration until an operator logs in and fixes them.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. Fresh instances report successful association compliance and agent settings are restored after an unauthorized change.
  2. A central report identifies installed package versions on managed nodes and reports nodes lacking the required agent or permissions.
  3. Without the approval token the destructive step remains blocked, and approved execution records its approver and results.
  4. Only valid configuration versions reach clients and an alarm-driven rollback reverts a harmful rollout.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Fresh instances report successful association compliance and agent settings are restored after an unauthorized change. It directly verifies the change: Create Systems Manager State Manager associations that periodically enforce the expected agent and configuration document on managed nodes. The test matters because state Manager maintains a declared configuration over time and reduces post-launch configuration drift in fleets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A central report identifies installed package versions on managed nodes and reports nodes lacking the required agent or permissions. That result would help prove inventory without ssh, where the relevant action is: Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For state manager desired configurations, the decisive verification is: Fresh instances report successful association compliance and agent settings are restored after an unauthorized change.

C:

Without the approval token the destructive step remains blocked, and approved execution records its approver and results. That result would help prove ssm automation approval steps, where the relevant action is: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For state manager desired configurations, the decisive verification is: Fresh instances report successful association compliance and agent settings are restored after an unauthorized change.

D:

Only valid configuration versions reach clients and an alarm-driven rollback reverts a harmful rollout. That result would help prove appconfig progressive rollout, where the relevant action is: Deploy validated configuration through AWS AppConfig with a gradual deployment strategy and CloudWatch alarm rollback. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For state manager desired configurations, the decisive verification is: Fresh instances report successful association compliance and agent settings are restored after an unauthorized change.

Question 111

A service transfers internal credentials between a Lambda client and a self-managed backend over plaintext HTTP inside a private VPC.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Plaintext credentials on internal networks can be intercepted or redirected by a compromised intermediate component.
  2. Relying on port-based filtering alone permits harmful HTTP payloads to reach application endpoints.
  3. A firewall provisioned without correct routing offers an illusion of inspection while traffic goes directly to the internet.
  4. Expired TLS certificates cause client connection failures despite healthy applications and open network routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Plaintext credentials on internal networks can be intercepted or redirected by a compromised intermediate component. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure. The corresponding mitigation is: Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Relying on port-based filtering alone permits harmful HTTP payloads to reach application endpoints. That is a credible concern for waf managed web rules, normally addressed by: Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Plaintext credentials on internal networks can be intercepted or redirected by a compromised intermediate component.

C:

A firewall provisioned without correct routing offers an illusion of inspection while traffic goes directly to the internet. That is a credible concern for network firewall inspection, normally addressed by: Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Plaintext credentials on internal networks can be intercepted or redirected by a compromised intermediate component.

D:

Expired TLS certificates cause client connection failures despite healthy applications and open network routes. That is a credible concern for acm certificate lifecycle, normally addressed by: Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Plaintext credentials on internal networks can be intercepted or redirected by a compromised intermediate component.

Question 112

An EC2 API fleet has predictable CPU-bound work but fixed capacity causes long requests during peak hours and waste at night.

Why is the recommended approach appropriate to this scenario?

  1. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.
  2. An ECS capacity provider links task placement demand to the EC2 capacity required to run those tasks.
  3. On-demand capacity adapts to varying request traffic without fixed provisioned settings while still requiring good partition-key design.
  4. Concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries. This explains the implementation decision: Set an Auto Scaling target-tracking policy on an appropriate utilization metric and maintain sensible minimum and maximum capacity. Verification should show the following: A repeatable load test increases and decreases in-service instances while latency and instance health remain acceptable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An ECS capacity provider links task placement demand to the EC2 capacity required to run those tasks. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of ecs capacity providers, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure an ECS capacity provider strategy with managed scaling for the underlying cluster where appropriate. The scenario requires understanding target tracking cpu scaling, where target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

C:

On-demand capacity adapts to varying request traffic without fixed provisioned settings while still requiring good partition-key design. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of dynamodb on demand capacity, for which the relevant intervention is: Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries. The scenario requires understanding target tracking cpu scaling, where target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

D:

Concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of lambda concurrency protection, for which the relevant intervention is: Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. The scenario requires understanding target tracking cpu scaling, where target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

Question 113

A compliance team needs to establish when an S3 bucket became publicly accessible and whether an approved remediation returned it to policy.

Which operational observation best confirms the intended design?

  1. The security-group change is traceable to an API event with actor role, source context and timestamp.
  2. A test object read and write generates the expected S3 data events for the monitored bucket.
  3. A report identifies the public-access transition, noncompliant rule evaluations and subsequent restored configuration.
  4. A bounded query reconstructs historical access events for a selected principal and day with verifiable archive provenance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A report identifies the public-access transition, noncompliant rule evaluations and subsequent restored configuration. It directly verifies the change: Review AWS Config configuration history and rule evaluation results for the bucket across the relevant period. The test matters because aWS Config records supported resource configuration changes and compliance state over time, complementing CloudTrail actor records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The security-group change is traceable to an API event with actor role, source context and timestamp. That result would help prove cloudtrail management audit, where the relevant action is: Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For config compliance timeline, the decisive verification is: A report identifies the public-access transition, noncompliant rule evaluations and subsequent restored configuration.

B:

A test object read and write generates the expected S3 data events for the monitored bucket. That result would help prove cloudtrail data events, where the relevant action is: Enable appropriately scoped CloudTrail S3 data event recording for the required buckets while managing cost and data sensitivity. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For config compliance timeline, the decisive verification is: A report identifies the public-access transition, noncompliant rule evaluations and subsequent restored configuration.

D:

A bounded query reconstructs historical access events for a selected principal and day with verifiable archive provenance. That result would help prove athena archived event analysis, where the relevant action is: Query structured archived logs using Athena with well-defined catalog tables, partitions and access permissions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For config compliance timeline, the decisive verification is: A report identifies the public-access transition, noncompliant rule evaluations and subsequent restored configuration.

Question 114

Security needs immediate notification when an IAM policy is updated, but analysts currently inspect CloudTrail only at the end of each week.

Which failure mode should the DevOps engineer prioritize?

  1. A single point-to-point notification channel can fail silently and deprive responders of timely incident evidence.
  2. Weekly manual log review permits unauthorized privilege changes to remain undetected for days.
  3. Unbounded retries consume capacity and can cause an entire queue backlog to miss operational response deadlines.
  4. Fragile callbacks can lose critical response state or isolate systems without proper approval after retries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Weekly manual log review permits unauthorized privilege changes to remain undetected for days. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: CloudTrail management events can be matched through EventBridge to produce timely automated actions with principal and operation context. The corresponding mitigation is: Use EventBridge rules for relevant CloudTrail API events and route approved matches into a security notification or response workflow.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single point-to-point notification channel can fail silently and deprive responders of timely incident evidence. That is a credible concern for sns fanout to teams, normally addressed by: Publish one structured incident event to an SNS topic with appropriate independent subscriptions or downstream queue consumers. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Weekly manual log review permits unauthorized privilege changes to remain undetected for days.

C:

Unbounded retries consume capacity and can cause an entire queue backlog to miss operational response deadlines. That is a credible concern for sqs dead letter handling, normally addressed by: Configure an appropriate SQS redrive policy to a dead-letter queue and investigate messages that exceed the retry threshold. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Weekly manual log review permits unauthorized privilege changes to remain undetected for days.

D:

Fragile callbacks can lose critical response state or isolate systems without proper approval after retries. That is a credible concern for step functions incident orchestration, normally addressed by: Use a Step Functions workflow with explicit branches, task-level retries and approval-dependent transitions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Weekly manual log review permits unauthorized privilege changes to remain undetected for days.

Question 115

Production teams need to reproduce an earlier release but their pipeline overwrites the current S3 zip on every successful build.

What risk best explains the need for a different approach?

  1. Untraceable packages prevent responders from identifying whether a compromised build entered the release path.
  2. Source-only testing misses vulnerabilities introduced by base images or assembly steps after code validation.
  3. Overaggressive lifecycle deletion can destroy the only artifact needed to restore a known-good application version.
  4. Overwriting the only artifact eliminates reliable rollback and can lead operators to deploy a different binary than the one approved.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Overwriting the only artifact eliminates reliable rollback and can lead operators to deploy a different binary than the one approved. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Versioning and unique object keys preserve rollback material and identify which bytes correspond to a release approval. The corresponding mitigation is: Store versioned release archives with immutable build identifiers in an encrypted artifact bucket and retain the deployed version mapping.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Untraceable packages prevent responders from identifying whether a compromised build entered the release path. That is a credible concern for build provenance tracking, normally addressed by: Record source revision, build execution, artifact checksum and dependency inventory as immutable release metadata. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Overwriting the only artifact eliminates reliable rollback and can lead operators to deploy a different binary than the one approved.

B:

Source-only testing misses vulnerabilities introduced by base images or assembly steps after code validation. That is a credible concern for artifact scanning after build, normally addressed by: Scan the final built container or machine image in addition to source dependencies before release approval. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Overwriting the only artifact eliminates reliable rollback and can lead operators to deploy a different binary than the one approved.

C:

Overaggressive lifecycle deletion can destroy the only artifact needed to restore a known-good application version. That is a credible concern for artifact retention rules, normally addressed by: Define lifecycle policies that prune unused image versions while retaining active and approved rollback digests. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Overwriting the only artifact eliminates reliable rollback and can lead operators to deploy a different binary than the one approved.

Question 116

Hundreds of EC2 instances must receive approved operating-system patches outside critical transaction hours with traceable success rates.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. A central report identifies installed package versions on managed nodes and reports nodes lacking the required agent or permissions.
  2. Without the approval token the destructive step remains blocked, and approved execution records its approver and results.
  3. Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.
  4. Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window. It directly verifies the change: Use Systems Manager Patch Manager and Maintenance Windows with tagged targets, approved baselines and staged execution settings. The test matters because patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A central report identifies installed package versions on managed nodes and reports nodes lacking the required agent or permissions. That result would help prove inventory without ssh, where the relevant action is: Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For patch manager maintenance windows, the decisive verification is: Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.

B:

Without the approval token the destructive step remains blocked, and approved execution records its approver and results. That result would help prove ssm automation approval steps, where the relevant action is: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For patch manager maintenance windows, the decisive verification is: Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.

D:

Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline. That result would help prove eventbridge scheduling, where the relevant action is: Use EventBridge Scheduler with an authorized target role and time-zone-aware schedule for the required shutdown automation. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For patch manager maintenance windows, the decisive verification is: Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.

Question 117

Security Hub sends duplicate findings through EventBridge and incident automation opens dozens of tickets for one vulnerable resource.

Which approach best meets the reliability and security constraints?

  1. Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes.
  2. Automate finding aggregation, risk-based alerting and tracked corrective ownership with Security Hub and AWS Config where appropriate.
  3. Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones.
  4. Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues. The relevant operational proof is specific: Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. That would address inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, because inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes. However, the stated situation instead concerns security finding deduplication. Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues.

B:

Automate finding aggregation, risk-based alerting and tracked corrective ownership with Security Hub and AWS Config where appropriate. That would address continuous security posture reviews, because continuous monitoring detects control drift and threats as they emerge instead of waiting for a periodic static report. However, the stated situation instead concerns security finding deduplication. Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues.

D:

Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions. That would address guardduty compromise indicators, because guardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal. However, the stated situation instead concerns security finding deduplication. Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues.

Question 118

Customers worldwide retrieve immutable public assets from one regional application origin, causing high latency and origin request cost.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.
  2. Under overload, excess calls receive controlled throttle responses while accepted traffic remains within service SLOs.
  3. Variable traffic completes within approved latency and throttling limits with costs reviewed against usage expectations.
  4. Global test clients show cache hits and reduced origin traffic for versioned assets without serving obsolete releases.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Global test clients show cache hits and reduced origin traffic for versioned assets without serving obsolete releases. It directly verifies the change: Serve cacheable static assets through CloudFront with correct cache headers and controlled invalidation or versioned file names. The test matters because edge caching reduces repeated origin fetches and latency for eligible content while preserving freshness control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate. That result would help prove lambda concurrency protection, where the relevant action is: Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudfront edge caching, the decisive verification is: Global test clients show cache hits and reduced origin traffic for versioned assets without serving obsolete releases.

B:

Under overload, excess calls receive controlled throttle responses while accepted traffic remains within service SLOs. That result would help prove api gateway throttling, where the relevant action is: Apply API Gateway throttling or usage limits aligned with downstream capacity and return intentional retry guidance. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudfront edge caching, the decisive verification is: Global test clients show cache hits and reduced origin traffic for versioned assets without serving obsolete releases.

C:

Variable traffic completes within approved latency and throttling limits with costs reviewed against usage expectations. That result would help prove dynamodb on demand capacity, where the relevant action is: Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudfront edge caching, the decisive verification is: Global test clients show cache hits and reduced origin traffic for versioned assets without serving obsolete releases.

Question 119

An order service writes structured error entries to CloudWatch Logs, but the team needs an operational alarm for the count of failed orders.

What should operators verify before closing the issue?

  1. A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.
  2. Authorized SRE dashboards query intended source-account metrics and logs while unrelated principals remain denied.
  3. A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded.
  4. New account logs arrive in the archive, can be read by authorized responders and are denied to workload administrators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded. It directly verifies the change: Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter using the error pattern, then alarm on the emitted custom metric. The test matters because metric filters translate matching ingested log events into CloudWatch metric data that alarm logic can evaluate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart. That result would help prove cloudwatch agent custom telemetry, where the relevant action is: Install and configure the CloudWatch agent or application instrumentation to publish needed custom metrics and log events with useful dimensions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For metric filter error counts, the decisive verification is: A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded.

B:

Authorized SRE dashboards query intended source-account metrics and logs while unrelated principals remain denied. That result would help prove cross account observability, where the relevant action is: Use CloudWatch cross-account observability with a central monitoring account and approved source-account links where applicable. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For metric filter error counts, the decisive verification is: A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded.

D:

New account logs arrive in the archive, can be read by authorized responders and are denied to workload administrators. That result would help prove central encrypted log archive, where the relevant action is: Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For metric filter error counts, the decisive verification is: A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded.

Question 120

A pipeline fails in CodeBuild with AccessDenied when uploading its output to an encrypted artifact bucket despite successful compilation.

Which action best meets the technical requirement?

  1. Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling.
  2. Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions.
  3. Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access.
  4. Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation. The relevant operational proof is specific: After policy correction the same build publishes its expected artifact without broader administrator privileges.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling. That would address eks image pull errors, because image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

B:

Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions. That would address ecs task startup failure, because the ECS task execution role and network path are needed to fetch container images before the application task can start. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

D:

Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying. That would address codedeploy hooks failure, because a failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports