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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 13

Question 120

A pipeline fails in CodeBuild with AccessDenied when uploading its output to an encrypted artifact bucket despite successful compilation.

Which action best meets the technical requirement?

  1. Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling.
  2. Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions.
  3. Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access.
  4. Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation. The relevant operational proof is specific: After policy correction the same build publishes its expected artifact without broader administrator privileges.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling. That would address eks image pull errors, because image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

B:

Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions. That would address ecs task startup failure, because the ECS task execution role and network path are needed to fetch container images before the application task can start. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

D:

Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying. That would address codedeploy hooks failure, because a failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup. However, the stated situation instead concerns codebuild role denied artifact. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

Question 121

Developers merge approved pull requests but the production release starts on every feature-branch push while integration tests are skipped.

Which AWS operational change most directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source.
  2. Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment.
  3. Use an authorized AWS CodeConnections repository connection and configured pipeline source triggers instead of a developer-maintained token.
  4. Configure a separate encrypted pipeline artifact bucket in each action Region and grant the required cross-Region access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment. Source-event filters control which commits enter the deployment path, while stage ordering ensures testing produces an explicit success signal. The relevant operational proof is specific: Feature pushes do not deploy to production and only merged, tested commits advance to the release approval stage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source. That would address pipeline secret retrieval, because managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential. However, the stated situation instead concerns branch-aware ci triggers. Source-event filters control which commits enter the deployment path, while stage ordering ensures testing produces an explicit success signal.

C:

Use an authorized AWS CodeConnections repository connection and configured pipeline source triggers instead of a developer-maintained token. That would address source connection permissions, because a managed repository connection provides a controlled integration between source events and pipeline execution without embedding a personal access token in an instance. However, the stated situation instead concerns branch-aware ci triggers. Source-event filters control which commits enter the deployment path, while stage ordering ensures testing produces an explicit success signal.

D:

Configure a separate encrypted pipeline artifact bucket in each action Region and grant the required cross-Region access. That would address multi-region pipeline artifacts, because codePipeline cross-Region actions require regional artifact stores because pipeline outputs must be transferred to resources near the action. However, the stated situation instead concerns branch-aware ci triggers. Source-event filters control which commits enter the deployment path, while stage ordering ensures testing produces an explicit success signal.

Question 122

A deployment template commits database credentials as a parameter Default value and the value appears in review history.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated.
  2. Uncontrolled template copying propagates outdated security defaults and produces difficult-to-maintain account configurations.
  3. Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.
  4. Reviewing only high-level CDK source can miss policies or resources produced by constructs and dependencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: External secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies. The corresponding mitigation is: Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Uncontrolled template copying propagates outdated security defaults and produces difficult-to-maintain account configurations. That is a credible concern for reusable network modules, normally addressed by: Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated.

C:

Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures. That is a credible concern for sam serverless templates, normally addressed by: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated.

D:

Reviewing only high-level CDK source can miss policies or resources produced by constructs and dependencies. That is a credible concern for cdk synthesis review, normally addressed by: Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated.

Question 123

Audit logs are stored in an S3 bucket that workload administrators can delete or modify after changing production IAM permissions.

Which adverse outcome is the recommended change intended to prevent?

  1. Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.
  2. Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment.
  3. Absent flow metadata makes it difficult to reconstruct suspicious egress paths during an incident.
  4. An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Protected, integrity-verifiable audit evidence reduces the ability of a compromised workload administrator to erase traces of API activity. The corresponding mitigation is: Centralize organization CloudTrail logs under independent security ownership with log-file validation and appropriate object retention protections.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment. That is a credible concern for config drift compliance, normally addressed by: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.

C:

Absent flow metadata makes it difficult to reconstruct suspicious egress paths during an incident. That is a credible concern for vpc flow logs detection, normally addressed by: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.

D:

An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion. That is a credible concern for inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, normally addressed by: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.

Question 124

An EKS microservice experiences variable request volume but engineers add nodes without increasing the application's pod replicas.

Which approach best meets the reliability and security constraints?

  1. Configure an ECS capacity provider strategy with managed scaling for the underlying cluster where appropriate.
  2. Introduce appropriately sized RDS read replicas and route eligible read queries to replica endpoints with lag-aware behavior.
  3. Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas.
  4. Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas. HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling. The relevant operational proof is specific: Increasing per-pod demand creates additional ready pod replicas and matching node capacity where required.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure an ECS capacity provider strategy with managed scaling for the underlying cluster where appropriate. That would address ecs capacity providers, because an ECS capacity provider links task placement demand to the EC2 capacity required to run those tasks. However, the stated situation instead concerns eks horizontal pod autoscaling. HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling.

B:

Introduce appropriately sized RDS read replicas and route eligible read queries to replica endpoints with lag-aware behavior. That would address rds read replicas, because read replicas offload read traffic but use asynchronous replication, so applications must distinguish eventual consistency from primary reads. However, the stated situation instead concerns eks horizontal pod autoscaling. HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling.

D:

Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. That would address lambda concurrency protection, because concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems. However, the stated situation instead concerns eks horizontal pod autoscaling. HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling.

Question 125

Security investigators need to know which assumed role changed an EC2 security group after a suspicious network exposure.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Use CloudWatch Logs Insights queries to aggregate and filter relevant log fields across selected log groups and time ranges.
  2. Use CloudWatch anomaly detection bands on a suitable service metric with defined sensitivity and anomaly alarm behavior.
  3. Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail.
  4. Monitor ALB HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count or rate with request volume context and correlate errors to target-group health.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail. CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions. The relevant operational proof is specific: The security-group change is traceable to an API event with actor role, source context and timestamp.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use CloudWatch Logs Insights queries to aggregate and filter relevant log fields across selected log groups and time ranges. That would address cloudwatch logs insights, because logs Insights supports interactive server-side queries that correlate large log sets without manual stream-by-stream exports. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudtrail management audit. CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions.

B:

Use CloudWatch anomaly detection bands on a suitable service metric with defined sensitivity and anomaly alarm behavior. That would address cloudwatch anomaly detection, because anomaly detection learns expected patterns in metric history and can detect deviations that static thresholds miss for seasonal signals. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudtrail management audit. CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions.

D:

Monitor ALB HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count or rate with request volume context and correlate errors to target-group health. That would address alb error signal, because target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudtrail management audit. CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions.

Question 126

An object-created event triggers a resource-cleanup Lambda twice and the second invocation deletes an asset created by the first.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps.
  2. Cross-account event buses can centralize structured events while resource policies control which source accounts may publish.
  3. Event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation.
  4. A target DLQ preserves events that cannot be delivered after retry policy exhaustion and makes failures diagnosable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation. This explains the implementation decision: Make event handlers idempotent with event identifiers, conditional state transitions and safely repeatable operations. Verification should show the following: Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of eventbridge archive replay, for which the relevant intervention is: Use an EventBridge archive and replay strategy on the intended event bus with idempotent processing and scope controls. The scenario requires understanding duplicate event delivery, where event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation.

B:

Cross-account event buses can centralize structured events while resource policies control which source accounts may publish. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cross account event routing, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure permitted cross-account EventBridge event-bus routing with resource policies and carefully scoped matching rules. The scenario requires understanding duplicate event delivery, where event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation.

D:

A target DLQ preserves events that cannot be delivered after retry policy exhaustion and makes failures diagnosable. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of event target failure dlq, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure EventBridge target retry behavior and a supported dead-letter queue with monitored failure metrics. The scenario requires understanding duplicate event delivery, where event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation.

Question 127

A payment API passes isolated unit tests but fails when invoking the deployed identity provider and a message queue.

Which failure mode should the DevOps engineer prioritize?

  1. Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment.
  2. Deploying without realistic load tests can trigger throttling, retry storms or database connection exhaustion during peak sales.
  3. An exclusively coverage-based release gate can approve highly executed but poorly tested error-handling logic.
  4. A green unit-test result can mask misconfigured cross-service roles and runtime contracts that break customer transactions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A green unit-test result can mask misconfigured cross-service roles and runtime contracts that break customer transactions. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Integration validation verifies actual service contracts and IAM connectivity that isolated unit tests cannot establish. The corresponding mitigation is: Run automated integration tests against a representative deployed test environment before permitting production promotion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment. That is a credible concern for contract test across services, normally addressed by: Introduce versioned producer-consumer contract tests in the CI stages of both services and gate changes on compatibility. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A green unit-test result can mask misconfigured cross-service roles and runtime contracts that break customer transactions.

B:

Deploying without realistic load tests can trigger throttling, retry storms or database connection exhaustion during peak sales. That is a credible concern for load test before peak, normally addressed by: Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A green unit-test result can mask misconfigured cross-service roles and runtime contracts that break customer transactions.

C:

An exclusively coverage-based release gate can approve highly executed but poorly tested error-handling logic. That is a credible concern for code-coverage interpretation, normally addressed by: Combine coverage thresholds with behavior-focused unit and integration assertions, rather than using coverage percentages as the sole quality gate. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A green unit-test result can mask misconfigured cross-service roles and runtime contracts that break customer transactions.

Question 128

An engineering group uses TypeScript CDK source but has never inspected the generated CloudFormation resources or IAM changes.

What would most effectively mitigate the described operational weakness?

  1. Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets.
  2. Create and inspect a CloudFormation change set with replacement details and require approval before executing it.
  3. Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment.
  4. Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment. CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources. The relevant operational proof is specific: A CI stage displays the synthesized resource changes and flags unexpectedly broad IAM policies before stack update.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. That would address template lint and policy checks, because predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts. However, the stated situation instead concerns cdk synthesis review. CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources.

B:

Create and inspect a CloudFormation change set with replacement details and require approval before executing it. That would address cloudformation change sets, because a change set previews intended stack resource actions including potential replacements, reducing surprise when modifying infrastructure. However, the stated situation instead concerns cdk synthesis review. CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources.

D:

Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults. That would address stack parameters and secrets, because external secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies. However, the stated situation instead concerns cdk synthesis review. CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources.

Question 129

Root and privileged console users can sign in with passwords only, while the security program requires stronger authentication.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. ABAC compares attributes at authorization time and scales access policy without a separate policy per resource when tags are trustworthy.
  2. Permissions boundaries limit the maximum permissions of the relevant IAM identity even if a developer grants broader identity-policy statements.
  3. IAM evaluation honors applicable explicit denies in resource policies, so identity permissions cannot override a transport-safety rule.
  4. MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege. This explains the implementation decision: Enforce MFA for human privileged access and minimize root account use under an emergency-access procedure. Verification should show the following: A privileged sign-in without the required second factor fails and emergency root access is governed and audited.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ABAC compares attributes at authorization time and scales access policy without a separate policy per resource when tags are trustworthy. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of abac application teams, for which the relevant intervention is: Implement controlled IAM attribute-based access using principal and resource tags with protections against unauthorized tag changes. The scenario requires understanding multi factor privileged access, where mFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

B:

Permissions boundaries limit the maximum permissions of the relevant IAM identity even if a developer grants broader identity-policy statements. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of permissions boundary delegation, for which the relevant intervention is: Require an IAM permissions boundary on developer-created roles in addition to appropriately scoped identity policies. The scenario requires understanding multi factor privileged access, where mFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

C:

IAM evaluation honors applicable explicit denies in resource policies, so identity permissions cannot override a transport-safety rule. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of resource based s3 policies, for which the relevant intervention is: Preserve the bucket's secure-transport explicit deny and update the client to use HTTPS rather than granting broader IAM access. The scenario requires understanding multi factor privileged access, where mFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

Question 130

An Aurora cluster provides high availability within one Region, yet a business continuity requirement also includes a complete regional outage.

What technical reasoning best supports the required control?

  1. DNS health-based routing can redirect new resolutions after unhealthy status is detected, but client caching can delay convergence.
  2. A traditional Multi-AZ standby supports availability and is not a general-purpose query endpoint, unlike designated read replicas.
  3. A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect.
  4. Intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path. This explains the implementation decision: Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection. Verification should show the following: A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS health-based routing can redirect new resolutions after unhealthy status is detected, but client caching can delay convergence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of route 53 regional failover, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. The scenario requires understanding aurora regional disaster availability, where intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.

B:

A traditional Multi-AZ standby supports availability and is not a general-purpose query endpoint, unlike designated read replicas. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of rds reader scaling distinction, for which the relevant intervention is: Add read replicas or another suitable read-scaling path and direct read-only workloads to them, retaining Multi-AZ for failover. The scenario requires understanding aurora regional disaster availability, where intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.

C:

A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of availability on shared cache, for which the relevant intervention is: Use an appropriate replicated Multi-AZ ElastiCache deployment with automatic failover and confirm client recovery behavior. The scenario requires understanding aurora regional disaster availability, where intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.

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