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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 22

Question 210

GuardDuty reports a likely compromised EC2 host, but the standard response manually edits the host's security group hours later.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Use suitable CloudWatch backlog metrics to drive an Auto Scaling policy for the processing fleet with bounded capacity.
  2. Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling.
  3. Trigger a guarded event workflow that applies a preapproved quarantine security group after checking finding type and resource identity.
  4. Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Trigger a guarded event workflow that applies a preapproved quarantine security group after checking finding type and resource identity. Event-driven isolation can reduce exposure quickly when it uses narrow selection logic and records the affected resource and decision. The relevant operational proof is specific: A simulated eligible finding isolates the intended instance while unrelated hosts retain normal network access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use suitable CloudWatch backlog metrics to drive an Auto Scaling policy for the processing fleet with bounded capacity. That would address auto scale on sqs backlog, because reactive scaling to queue pressure adjusts worker count to actual incoming demand instead of relying on a fixed operator schedule. However, the stated situation instead concerns automated isolation of compromised instance. Event-driven isolation can reduce exposure quickly when it uses narrow selection logic and records the affected resource and decision.

B:

Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling. That would address config rule network remediation, because a Config evaluation identifies the noncompliant resource state and an authorized automation can restore the expected ingress policy. However, the stated situation instead concerns automated isolation of compromised instance. Event-driven isolation can reduce exposure quickly when it uses narrow selection logic and records the affected resource and decision.

D:

Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually. That would address parameter change rollback, because appConfig controlled deployment strategies can monitor alarms and roll back configuration versions when customer health degrades. However, the stated situation instead concerns automated isolation of compromised instance. Event-driven isolation can reduce exposure quickly when it uses narrow selection logic and records the affected resource and decision.

Question 211

An EC2 fleet must receive a risky application revision with rapid rollback and no in-place package mutation of healthy instances.

Which solution should the DevOps engineer implement?

  1. Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement.
  2. Configure the appropriate AppSpec lifecycle hooks to stop, install and start the application, then validate the service after installation.
  3. Deploy the revision to a separate green EC2 fleet and switch traffic after health checks using a blue/green deployment strategy.
  4. Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Deploy the revision to a separate green EC2 fleet and switch traffic after health checks using a blue/green deployment strategy. A separate target fleet keeps the last-known-good servers available until the replacement version meets cutover criteria. The relevant operational proof is specific: Traffic initially remains on blue, then shifts to healthy green targets, and can return to blue if alarms trip.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement. That would address kubernetes rolling readiness, because kubernetes readiness controls endpoint participation while rollout parameters bound simultaneous pod unavailability. However, the stated situation instead concerns ec2 blue green deployment. A separate target fleet keeps the last-known-good servers available until the replacement version meets cutover criteria.

B:

Configure the appropriate AppSpec lifecycle hooks to stop, install and start the application, then validate the service after installation. That would address codedeploy lifecycle hooks, because deployment hooks coordinate application lifecycle actions; successful file copying alone does not prove readiness to serve requests. However, the stated situation instead concerns ec2 blue green deployment. A separate target fleet keeps the last-known-good servers available until the replacement version meets cutover criteria.

D:

Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity. That would address alb target group health, because load balancer health checks determine whether an instance or task should receive requests; instance launch does not mean application readiness. However, the stated situation instead concerns ec2 blue green deployment. A separate target fleet keeps the last-known-good servers available until the replacement version meets cutover criteria.

Question 212

A security team manages services in every workload account by using the organizations management account for everyday operations.

Which consequence is most specific to the observed weakness?

  1. A universal administrator deployment role exposes all member accounts if one lower-trust CI job is compromised.
  2. Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session.
  3. Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls.
  4. Orphaned IAM users and long-lived credentials remain usable after an employee leaves the organization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Delegated administration separates operational service management from the powerful organizations management account, limiting credential exposure. The corresponding mitigation is: Register supported delegated administrator accounts for applicable organization-level security services and minimize management-account use.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A universal administrator deployment role exposes all member accounts if one lower-trust CI job is compromised. That is a credible concern for account bootstrap separation, normally addressed by: Create scoped bootstrap and deployment roles per environment, with explicit cross-account trust and limited permissions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session.

C:

Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls. That is a credible concern for stacksets ou deployment, normally addressed by: Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session.

D:

Orphaned IAM users and long-lived credentials remain usable after an employee leaves the organization. That is a credible concern for permission sets at scale, normally addressed by: Use IAM Identity Center federation and permission sets to assign centrally managed workforce access across accounts. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session.

Question 213

A sensitive account receives anomalous ConsoleLogin activity but the incident process never distinguishes success, failure and MFA context.

Which evidence most directly demonstrates that the requirement has been met?

  1. A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence.
  2. A validated threat simulation produces a relevant finding and the response record retains evidence of the implicated resource.
  3. A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation.
  4. A high-risk privileged sign-in generates an alert with principal, source details and authentication context while expected activity is not overpaged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A high-risk privileged sign-in generates an alert with principal, source details and authentication context while expected activity is not overpaged. It directly verifies the change: Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. The test matters because cloudTrail management events contain context to distinguish risky access signals; detection logic needs meaningful predicates rather than every login.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence. That result would help prove config drift compliance, where the relevant action is: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudtrail suspicious console login, the decisive verification is: A high-risk privileged sign-in generates an alert with principal, source details and authentication context while expected activity is not overpaged.

B:

A validated threat simulation produces a relevant finding and the response record retains evidence of the implicated resource. That result would help prove guardduty compromise indicators, where the relevant action is: Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudtrail suspicious console login, the decisive verification is: A high-risk privileged sign-in generates an alert with principal, source details and authentication context while expected activity is not overpaged.

C:

A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation. That result would help prove inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, where the relevant action is: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudtrail suspicious console login, the decisive verification is: A high-risk privileged sign-in generates an alert with principal, source details and authentication context while expected activity is not overpaged.

Question 214

An event-driven Lambda consumer overwhelms a legacy database when hundreds of invocations run concurrently after a queue backlog clears.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. Queue depth normalized by available consumers better represents work outstanding than host CPU for I/O-bound tasks.
  2. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.
  3. HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling.
  4. Concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems. This explains the implementation decision: Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. Verification should show the following: Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Queue depth normalized by available consumers better represents work outstanding than host CPU for I/O-bound tasks. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of sqs backlog per worker scaling, for which the relevant intervention is: Scale consumers using a CloudWatch backlog-per-instance metric and processing-time-aware target instead of CPU alone. The scenario requires understanding lambda concurrency protection, where concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

B:

Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of target tracking cpu scaling, for which the relevant intervention is: Set an Auto Scaling target-tracking policy on an appropriate utilization metric and maintain sensible minimum and maximum capacity. The scenario requires understanding lambda concurrency protection, where concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

C:

HPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of eks horizontal pod autoscaling, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas. The scenario requires understanding lambda concurrency protection, where concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

Question 215

A central operations team needs continuous CloudWatch metrics for an external analytics platform, not occasional manually exported dashboard screenshots.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Partition pruning reduces the amount of object data queried by Athena while preserving coverage and retention.
  2. Subscriptions forward matching log events to a processor such as Kinesis Data Streams or Lambda shortly after ingestion.
  3. Metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection.
  4. A dedicated log archive separates custody from workload operators while encryption and scoped permissions protect retained evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection. This explains the implementation decision: Configure CloudWatch Metric Streams to a supported delivery pipeline such as Kinesis Data Firehose and its destination. Verification should show the following: The downstream system receives named metric dimensions and timestamps with an understood delivery delay and failure path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Partition pruning reduces the amount of object data queried by Athena while preserving coverage and retention. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of s3 delivery partitioning, for which the relevant intervention is: Organize logs in time and source-oriented prefixes or partitions and apply appropriate object lifecycle and access controls. The scenario requires understanding metric stream for analytics, where metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection.

B:

Subscriptions forward matching log events to a processor such as Kinesis Data Streams or Lambda shortly after ingestion. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of kinesis subscription processing, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling. The scenario requires understanding metric stream for analytics, where metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection.

D:

A dedicated log archive separates custody from workload operators while encryption and scoped permissions protect retained evidence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of central encrypted log archive, for which the relevant intervention is: Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. The scenario requires understanding metric stream for analytics, where metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection.

Question 216

An EventBridge rule detects a config change, remediates it, and the remediation itself creates another event that retriggers the same action repeatedly.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Drive an approved patch remediation workflow from compliance findings with maintenance windows, staged rollout and exclusions.
  2. Make remediation conditional on observed noncompliance and deduplicate with resource state, event IDs or bounded execution guards.
  3. Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold.
  4. Restrict target selection using approved resource tags, account conditions and maintenance policy before running remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Make remediation conditional on observed noncompliance and deduplicate with resource state, event IDs or bounded execution guards. Event-driven changes can generate new events; automation must detect already-correct state to avoid feedback loops. The relevant operational proof is specific: After one corrective action the resource remains compliant and subsequent related events do not create more changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Drive an approved patch remediation workflow from compliance findings with maintenance windows, staged rollout and exclusions. That would address patch compliance event action, because compliance events can trigger automated patch scheduling, but patch impact and business windows still determine safe execution. However, the stated situation instead concerns remediation loop prevention. Event-driven changes can generate new events; automation must detect already-correct state to avoid feedback loops.

C:

Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold. That would address failed deployment reversion, because codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring. However, the stated situation instead concerns remediation loop prevention. Event-driven changes can generate new events; automation must detect already-correct state to avoid feedback loops.

D:

Restrict target selection using approved resource tags, account conditions and maintenance policy before running remediation. That would address tag based automation scope, because event-driven automation is safe only when the intended resource population and ownership are explicitly defined. However, the stated situation instead concerns remediation loop prevention. Event-driven changes can generate new events; automation must detect already-correct state to avoid feedback loops.

Question 217

A build script logs a failed integration command but exits with status zero, causing CodeBuild to mark the job successful.

Which AWS-specific principle most directly explains the desired solution?

  1. Scan results are useful only when policy makes promotion conditional on acceptable risk; an informational report alone cannot stop unsafe releases.
  2. CI services depend on process success or failure status; diagnostic log text without a failing exit cannot reliably enforce a gate.
  3. Coverage measures execution of code paths but does not establish that assertions detect incorrect behavior or missing requirements.
  4. Smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

CI services depend on process success or failure status; diagnostic log text without a failing exit cannot reliably enforce a gate. This explains the implementation decision: Configure scripts to propagate nonzero process exits and fail the build phase whenever a required validation command fails. Verification should show the following: An intentionally failed test returns a nonzero build phase status and downstream deployment actions are not run.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scan results are useful only when policy makes promotion conditional on acceptable risk; an informational report alone cannot stop unsafe releases. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of security scan enforcement, for which the relevant intervention is: Add a vulnerability scanning gate with severity-based failure criteria before promoting the image digest to a production repository. The scenario requires understanding exit code and failure propagation, where cI services depend on process success or failure status; diagnostic log text without a failing exit cannot reliably enforce a gate.

C:

Coverage measures execution of code paths but does not establish that assertions detect incorrect behavior or missing requirements. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of code-coverage interpretation, for which the relevant intervention is: Combine coverage thresholds with behavior-focused unit and integration assertions, rather than using coverage percentages as the sole quality gate. The scenario requires understanding exit code and failure propagation, where cI services depend on process success or failure status; diagnostic log text without a failing exit cannot reliably enforce a gate.

D:

Smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of acceptance smoke validation, for which the relevant intervention is: Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result. The scenario requires understanding exit code and failure propagation, where cI services depend on process success or failure status; diagnostic log text without a failing exit cannot reliably enforce a gate.

Question 218

Administrators troubleshoot private instances by opening inbound SSH from a broad corporate CIDR and sharing emergency keys.

What technical reasoning best supports the required control?

  1. Managed scheduling removes reliance on a user's workstation and invokes targets under scoped AWS permissions.
  2. Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.
  3. Step Functions coordinates multi-step asynchronous work beyond a single Lambda execution and makes failure states observable.
  4. Session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys. This explains the implementation decision: Use Systems Manager Session Manager with least-privilege IAM, managed nodes and audit logging instead of permanent inbound SSH access. Verification should show the following: The intended operator can start a logged session under IAM authorization while the instance has no public SSH ingress.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Managed scheduling removes reliance on a user's workstation and invokes targets under scoped AWS permissions. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of eventbridge scheduling, for which the relevant intervention is: Use EventBridge Scheduler with an authorized target role and time-zone-aware schedule for the required shutdown automation. The scenario requires understanding session manager access, where session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys.

B:

Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of ssm automation approval steps, for which the relevant intervention is: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. The scenario requires understanding session manager access, where session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys.

C:

Step Functions coordinates multi-step asynchronous work beyond a single Lambda execution and makes failure states observable. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of step functions long workflows, for which the relevant intervention is: Orchestrate recovery through AWS Step Functions with explicit state transitions, retries, timeouts and approval integration. The scenario requires understanding session manager access, where session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys.

Question 219

Security responders suspect exfiltration through unusual EC2 DNS queries but only track static port rules and CPU alarms.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Flow logs capture network-flow metadata such as source, destination, ports and action for supported traffic, not full application payloads.
  2. GuardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal.
  3. Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues.
  4. CloudTrail management events contain context to distinguish risky access signals; detection logic needs meaningful predicates rather than every login.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

GuardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal. This explains the implementation decision: Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions. Verification should show the following: A validated threat simulation produces a relevant finding and the response record retains evidence of the implicated resource.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flow logs capture network-flow metadata such as source, destination, ports and action for supported traffic, not full application payloads. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of vpc flow logs detection, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. The scenario requires understanding guardduty compromise indicators, where guardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal.

C:

Security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of security finding deduplication, for which the relevant intervention is: Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. The scenario requires understanding guardduty compromise indicators, where guardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal.

D:

CloudTrail management events contain context to distinguish risky access signals; detection logic needs meaningful predicates rather than every login. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudtrail suspicious console login, for which the relevant intervention is: Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. The scenario requires understanding guardduty compromise indicators, where guardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal.

Question 220

An event-driven Lambda consumer overwhelms a legacy database when hundreds of invocations run concurrently after a queue backlog clears.

What should operators verify before closing the issue?

  1. A repeatable load test increases and decreases in-service instances while latency and instance health remain acceptable.
  2. Increasing per-pod demand creates additional ready pod replicas and matching node capacity where required.
  3. Rising queue age or backlog causes workers to scale out and job completion delay returns to its target range.
  4. Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate. It directly verifies the change: Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. The test matters because concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A repeatable load test increases and decreases in-service instances while latency and instance health remain acceptable. That result would help prove target tracking cpu scaling, where the relevant action is: Set an Auto Scaling target-tracking policy on an appropriate utilization metric and maintain sensible minimum and maximum capacity. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For lambda concurrency protection, the decisive verification is: Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.

B:

Increasing per-pod demand creates additional ready pod replicas and matching node capacity where required. That result would help prove eks horizontal pod autoscaling, where the relevant action is: Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For lambda concurrency protection, the decisive verification is: Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.

C:

Rising queue age or backlog causes workers to scale out and job completion delay returns to its target range. That result would help prove sqs backlog per worker scaling, where the relevant action is: Scale consumers using a CloudWatch backlog-per-instance metric and processing-time-aware target instead of CPU alone. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For lambda concurrency protection, the decisive verification is: Load testing shows database connection counts stay below approved thresholds while the SQS backlog drains at a controlled rate.

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