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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 67

Question 660

A team executes a short smoke test for a major database schema migration while running full acceptance suites for harmless documentation edits.

Which validation result offers the strongest acceptance evidence?

  1. Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.
  2. A producer schema change that removes a required field fails contract checks before either microservice reaches production.
  3. Mutation or negative-case tests fail when logic is intentionally broken even though the executed line coverage remains high.
  4. Schema migration rehearsal and backward-compatibility tests pass before the high-impact release, and normal releases retain standard checks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Schema migration rehearsal and backward-compatibility tests pass before the high-impact release, and normal releases retain standard checks. It directly verifies the change: Select additional migration, rollback and compatibility tests based on release impact and dependencies while retaining standard baseline checks. The test matters because risk-based test depth allocates verification to failure modes introduced by a change, without making every release equally expensive.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load. That result would help prove load test before peak, where the relevant action is: Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For change risk based tests, the decisive verification is: Schema migration rehearsal and backward-compatibility tests pass before the high-impact release, and normal releases retain standard checks.

B:

A producer schema change that removes a required field fails contract checks before either microservice reaches production. That result would help prove contract test across services, where the relevant action is: Introduce versioned producer-consumer contract tests in the CI stages of both services and gate changes on compatibility. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For change risk based tests, the decisive verification is: Schema migration rehearsal and backward-compatibility tests pass before the high-impact release, and normal releases retain standard checks.

C:

Mutation or negative-case tests fail when logic is intentionally broken even though the executed line coverage remains high. That result would help prove code-coverage interpretation, where the relevant action is: Combine coverage thresholds with behavior-focused unit and integration assertions, rather than using coverage percentages as the sole quality gate. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For change risk based tests, the decisive verification is: Schema migration rehearsal and backward-compatibility tests pass before the high-impact release, and normal releases retain standard checks.

Question 661

An enterprise owns one large networking template that application teams duplicate whenever they need a standard subnet and route model.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Duplicated monolithic templates diverge and make a critical routing fix inconsistent across dependent workloads.
  2. Without explicit retention controls, a template cleanup can delete resources containing durable business information.
  3. Reviewing only high-level CDK source can miss policies or resources produced by constructs and dependencies.
  4. Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Duplicated monolithic templates diverge and make a critical routing fix inconsistent across dependent workloads. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Modular stack composition lets infrastructure teams maintain common structures without scattering unsynchronized copies. The corresponding mitigation is: Use appropriately versioned nested stacks or shared infrastructure components with independently maintained lifecycle boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Without explicit retention controls, a template cleanup can delete resources containing durable business information. That is a credible concern for cloudformation deletion protections, normally addressed by: Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Duplicated monolithic templates diverge and make a critical routing fix inconsistent across dependent workloads.

C:

Reviewing only high-level CDK source can miss policies or resources produced by constructs and dependencies. That is a credible concern for cdk synthesis review, normally addressed by: Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Duplicated monolithic templates diverge and make a critical routing fix inconsistent across dependent workloads.

D:

Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures. That is a credible concern for sam serverless templates, normally addressed by: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Duplicated monolithic templates diverge and make a critical routing fix inconsistent across dependent workloads.

Question 662

A CI service in the tooling account needs to deploy to one workload account, but a new role trust policy accepts any principal from any AWS account.

What could most credibly go wrong under these conditions?

  1. Stale per-account IAM users and permanent keys remain usable after employment changes or compromise.
  2. Exposed long-lived local credentials may be reused from outside the EC2 workload until explicitly revoked.
  3. An open trust relationship creates a cross-account entry point that can be exploited using unintended credentials.
  4. Manual secret rotation leads to outages or causes teams to postpone credential changes indefinitely.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An open trust relationship creates a cross-account entry point that can be exploited using unintended credentials. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: STS role assumption requires a matching trust policy as well as caller-side permission; broad trust expands the pool of potential assumers. The corresponding mitigation is: Restrict the target role trust policy to the intended tooling principal and scope its permissions to needed deployment actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stale per-account IAM users and permanent keys remain usable after employment changes or compromise. That is a credible concern for federated human workforce, normally addressed by: Federate workforce access using IAM Identity Center and account-specific permission sets instead of cloning persistent IAM users. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An open trust relationship creates a cross-account entry point that can be exploited using unintended credentials.

B:

Exposed long-lived local credentials may be reused from outside the EC2 workload until explicitly revoked. That is a credible concern for iam roles for workloads, normally addressed by: Attach a least-privilege instance profile IAM role to EC2 and retrieve temporary credentials through the instance metadata service. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An open trust relationship creates a cross-account entry point that can be exploited using unintended credentials.

D:

Manual secret rotation leads to outages or causes teams to postpone credential changes indefinitely. That is a credible concern for secrets manager rotation, normally addressed by: Manage the database secret with Secrets Manager and a supported rotation process coordinated with application refresh behavior. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An open trust relationship creates a cross-account entry point that can be exploited using unintended credentials.

Question 663

A financial team deploys payment changes automatically from developer commits even when an authorized change approval is mandatory.

What should operators verify before closing the issue?

  1. Actions in both Regions retrieve the exact versioned release artifact and execute using properly scoped KMS and S3 permissions.
  2. Revoking the developer's human account does not break the authorized pipeline, while repository events initiate only permitted executions.
  3. A staged pipeline deploys only to its authorized account and CloudTrail records the assumed-role operations for each stage.
  4. An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version. It directly verifies the change: Insert a manual approval stage in the production promotion path, with reviewers separate from the code authors. The test matters because a pipeline approval action pauses a release without discarding its tested artifacts and provides an auditable human authorization boundary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Actions in both Regions retrieve the exact versioned release artifact and execute using properly scoped KMS and S3 permissions. That result would help prove multi-region pipeline artifacts, where the relevant action is: Configure a separate encrypted pipeline artifact bucket in each action Region and grant the required cross-Region access. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For release approval segregation, the decisive verification is: An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version.

B:

Revoking the developer's human account does not break the authorized pipeline, while repository events initiate only permitted executions. That result would help prove source connection permissions, where the relevant action is: Use an authorized AWS CodeConnections repository connection and configured pipeline source triggers instead of a developer-maintained token. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For release approval segregation, the decisive verification is: An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version.

C:

A staged pipeline deploys only to its authorized account and CloudTrail records the assumed-role operations for each stage. That result would help prove cross-account deployment roles, where the relevant action is: Configure CodePipeline deployment actions to assume dedicated least-privilege roles in each target account with scoped trust policies. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For release approval segregation, the decisive verification is: An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version.

Question 664

An administrator modifies a mandatory Control Tower resource in a governed account and automation later reports the landing zone out of compliance.

Which finding directly validates the selected implementation?

  1. The account returns to a compliant governed state without unexplained changes to required baseline roles or logging.
  2. An API action in a newly enrolled account produces the expected centralized CloudTrail event with integrity controls.
  3. The central view reports compliant and noncompliant resources from all intended accounts and monitored Regions.
  4. A new account joining the target OU receives the expected rule stack without a separate manual deployment request.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The account returns to a compliant governed state without unexplained changes to required baseline roles or logging. It directly verifies the change: Investigate Control Tower drift and restore the prescribed landing-zone resources through supported repair or re-enrollment processes. The test matters because control Tower governance depends on baseline resources remaining in their managed expected state; manual alterations can compromise control operation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An API action in a newly enrolled account produces the expected centralized CloudTrail event with integrity controls. That result would help prove organization trail audit scope, where the relevant action is: Create an organization-level multi-Region CloudTrail trail with protected centralized log storage and appropriate ownership. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower baseline drift, the decisive verification is: The account returns to a compliant governed state without unexplained changes to required baseline roles or logging.

C:

The central view reports compliant and noncompliant resources from all intended accounts and monitored Regions. That result would help prove multiaccount config aggregation, where the relevant action is: Configure an AWS Config aggregator with the required organization and Region coverage and centrally review aggregated compliance. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower baseline drift, the decisive verification is: The account returns to a compliant governed state without unexplained changes to required baseline roles or logging.

D:

A new account joining the target OU receives the expected rule stack without a separate manual deployment request. That result would help prove stacksets ou deployment, where the relevant action is: Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower baseline drift, the decisive verification is: The account returns to a compliant governed state without unexplained changes to required baseline roles or logging.

Question 665

A global company creates long-lived IAM users for every employee in every workload account even though it operates a corporate identity provider.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Use a supported OIDC federation trust or other short-lived credential exchange to assume a scoped AWS deployment role.
  2. Federate workforce access using IAM Identity Center and account-specific permission sets instead of cloning persistent IAM users.
  3. Restrict the target role trust policy to the intended tooling principal and scope its permissions to needed deployment actions.
  4. Implement controlled IAM attribute-based access using principal and resource tags with protections against unauthorized tag changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Federate workforce access using IAM Identity Center and account-specific permission sets instead of cloning persistent IAM users. Central federation uses trusted workforce identity and temporary account-role sessions, reducing credential lifecycle sprawl. The relevant operational proof is specific: A former employee loses assigned account access after corporate deprovisioning without manual removal of dozens of IAM users.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use a supported OIDC federation trust or other short-lived credential exchange to assume a scoped AWS deployment role. That would address temporary build credentials, because federated short-lived credentials avoid permanent key distribution and can constrain role assumption to a repository and workflow identity. However, the stated situation instead concerns federated human workforce. Central federation uses trusted workforce identity and temporary account-role sessions, reducing credential lifecycle sprawl.

C:

Restrict the target role trust policy to the intended tooling principal and scope its permissions to needed deployment actions. That would address cross account assume role trust, because sTS role assumption requires a matching trust policy as well as caller-side permission; broad trust expands the pool of potential assumers. However, the stated situation instead concerns federated human workforce. Central federation uses trusted workforce identity and temporary account-role sessions, reducing credential lifecycle sprawl.

D:

Implement controlled IAM attribute-based access using principal and resource tags with protections against unauthorized tag changes. That would address abac application teams, because aBAC compares attributes at authorization time and scales access policy without a separate policy per resource when tags are trustworthy. However, the stated situation instead concerns federated human workforce. Central federation uses trusted workforce identity and temporary account-role sessions, reducing credential lifecycle sprawl.

Question 666

An ECS service needs a safe release while existing tasks continue serving traffic during the new task-set validation period.

Which finding directly validates the selected implementation?

  1. The refreshed fleet has the approved AMI ID and sufficient in-service instances throughout the replacement.
  2. New pods enter service only after dependencies are ready and enough old replicas remain to handle traffic.
  3. The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.
  4. Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it. It directly verifies the change: Use CodeDeploy blue/green with distinct ECS task sets and ALB target groups, then switch the listener to the healthy replacement. The test matters because two task sets allow controlled validation and traffic movement while preserving the prior task set for rollback during the deployment window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The refreshed fleet has the approved AMI ID and sufficient in-service instances throughout the replacement. That result would help prove immutable auto scaling replacement, where the relevant action is: Create a new launch template version referencing the tested AMI and perform a managed instance refresh with health thresholds. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For ecs traffic shifted releases, the decisive verification is: The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.

B:

New pods enter service only after dependencies are ready and enough old replicas remain to handle traffic. That result would help prove kubernetes rolling readiness, where the relevant action is: Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For ecs traffic shifted releases, the decisive verification is: The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.

D:

Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish. That result would help prove database expand contract migration, where the relevant action is: Use an expand-and-contract schema migration that preserves backward compatibility throughout mixed-version deployment. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For ecs traffic shifted releases, the decisive verification is: The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.

Question 667

A release adds a new database column and deletes an old one immediately, but traffic will temporarily reach both old and new application versions.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish.
  2. Traffic moves only after all intended green targets pass the health threshold and recoverable targets are removed when unhealthy.
  3. The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.
  4. Hook logs confirm the intended process restart and the post-install health test returns an application-ready response.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish. It directly verifies the change: Use an expand-and-contract schema migration that preserves backward compatibility throughout mixed-version deployment. The test matters because schema changes must support both application revisions while blue/green or canary traffic overlaps; destructive changes belong after consumers migrate.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Traffic moves only after all intended green targets pass the health threshold and recoverable targets are removed when unhealthy. That result would help prove alb target group health, where the relevant action is: Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For database expand contract migration, the decisive verification is: Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish.

C:

The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it. That result would help prove ecs traffic shifted releases, where the relevant action is: Use CodeDeploy blue/green with distinct ECS task sets and ALB target groups, then switch the listener to the healthy replacement. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For database expand contract migration, the decisive verification is: Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish.

D:

Hook logs confirm the intended process restart and the post-install health test returns an application-ready response. That result would help prove codedeploy lifecycle hooks, where the relevant action is: Configure the appropriate AppSpec lifecycle hooks to stop, install and start the application, then validate the service after installation. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For database expand contract migration, the decisive verification is: Old and new application versions successfully read and write compatible schema states until cutover and rollback windows finish.

Question 668

The same application artifact must connect to different endpoints in test and production, but a team hardcodes the production URL into the compiled binary.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. The artifact digest is unchanged between environments and each deployed stage resolves only its approved endpoint and configuration version.
  2. The build reads a current credential without printing it in logs or storing it in repository history, and access is traceable.
  3. Repeated builds of a fixed source revision resolve declared dependencies and emit consistent manifest and package checksums.
  4. An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The artifact digest is unchanged between environments and each deployed stage resolves only its approved endpoint and configuration version. It directly verifies the change: Keep environment-specific settings in deployment-time configuration such as Parameter Store or AppConfig while preserving the immutable build. The test matters because externalized configuration allows one vetted package to run in multiple environments without changing its code or build provenance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The build reads a current credential without printing it in logs or storing it in repository history, and access is traceable. That result would help prove pipeline secret retrieval, where the relevant action is: Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For environment configuration separation, the decisive verification is: The artifact digest is unchanged between environments and each deployed stage resolves only its approved endpoint and configuration version.

C:

Repeated builds of a fixed source revision resolve declared dependencies and emit consistent manifest and package checksums. That result would help prove build isolation and reproducibility, where the relevant action is: Run CodeBuild jobs in defined ephemeral build environments with pinned dependency versions and protected service-role permissions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For environment configuration separation, the decisive verification is: The artifact digest is unchanged between environments and each deployed stage resolves only its approved endpoint and configuration version.

D:

An unapproved execution remains stopped; approved executions retain reviewer identity, timestamp and the exact artifact version. That result would help prove release approval segregation, where the relevant action is: Insert a manual approval stage in the production promotion path, with reviewers separate from the code authors. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For environment configuration separation, the decisive verification is: The artifact digest is unchanged between environments and each deployed stage resolves only its approved endpoint and configuration version.

Question 669

A Lambda function handles high-volume checkout events and its new version should receive a small share of traffic before full rollout.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. Load balancer health checks determine whether an instance or task should receive requests; instance launch does not mean application readiness.
  2. Weighted Lambda aliases provide version-specific traffic control without requiring callers to change function names or endpoints.
  3. Kubernetes readiness controls endpoint participation while rollout parameters bound simultaneous pod unavailability.
  4. Instance refresh reconciles the fleet to a declared immutable template while preserving a minimum healthy percentage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Weighted Lambda aliases provide version-specific traffic control without requiring callers to change function names or endpoints. This explains the implementation decision: Publish a Lambda version and use a CodeDeploy canary deployment to shift alias traffic gradually with CloudWatch rollback alarms. Verification should show the following: Invocation metrics show the planned small traffic fraction on the new version and rollback to the prior alias target when errors exceed threshold.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Load balancer health checks determine whether an instance or task should receive requests; instance launch does not mean application readiness. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of alb target group health, for which the relevant intervention is: Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity. The scenario requires understanding lambda canary aliases, where weighted Lambda aliases provide version-specific traffic control without requiring callers to change function names or endpoints.

C:

Kubernetes readiness controls endpoint participation while rollout parameters bound simultaneous pod unavailability. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of kubernetes rolling readiness, for which the relevant intervention is: Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement. The scenario requires understanding lambda canary aliases, where weighted Lambda aliases provide version-specific traffic control without requiring callers to change function names or endpoints.

D:

Instance refresh reconciles the fleet to a declared immutable template while preserving a minimum healthy percentage. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of immutable auto scaling replacement, for which the relevant intervention is: Create a new launch template version referencing the tested AMI and perform a managed instance refresh with health thresholds. The scenario requires understanding lambda canary aliases, where weighted Lambda aliases provide version-specific traffic control without requiring callers to change function names or endpoints.

Question 670

A container pipeline publishes images despite a critical vulnerability discovered during automated image analysis.

What outcome would best demonstrate the danger of retaining the current design?

  1. Treating scanner findings as informational permits known exploitable images to reach production without a conscious risk decision.
  2. Without a premerge validation gate, simple defects advance into integration environments and consume expensive release windows.
  3. A swallowed process exit lets the pipeline promote artifacts even though mandatory tests reported failures.
  4. Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Treating scanner findings as informational permits known exploitable images to reach production without a conscious risk decision. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Scan results are useful only when policy makes promotion conditional on acceptable risk; an informational report alone cannot stop unsafe releases. The corresponding mitigation is: Add a vulnerability scanning gate with severity-based failure criteria before promoting the image digest to a production repository.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Without a premerge validation gate, simple defects advance into integration environments and consume expensive release windows. That is a credible concern for pull request unit tests, normally addressed by: Run unit tests and static checks in a CodeBuild validation stage triggered on pull requests and block merging on failure. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating scanner findings as informational permits known exploitable images to reach production without a conscious risk decision.

C:

A swallowed process exit lets the pipeline promote artifacts even though mandatory tests reported failures. That is a credible concern for exit code and failure propagation, normally addressed by: Configure scripts to propagate nonzero process exits and fail the build phase whenever a required validation command fails. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating scanner findings as informational permits known exploitable images to reach production without a conscious risk decision.

D:

Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment. That is a credible concern for contract test across services, normally addressed by: Introduce versioned producer-consumer contract tests in the CI stages of both services and gate changes on compatibility. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating scanner findings as informational permits known exploitable images to reach production without a conscious risk decision.

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