Cisco CCNA 300-410 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 7 Q121-140

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Q121. Which protocol is commonly used to automatically assign IPv4 addresses and other network parameters to clients?

1) DNS
2) DHCP
3) FTP
4) SNMP

Correct Answer: 2) DHCP

Explanation: DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, automatically provides network configuration information to client devices. This can include an IPv4 address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses. DHCP reduces the need for administrators to manually configure every endpoint and helps prevent duplicate addressing. A DHCP server maintains address pools and leases addresses to clients for specific periods. DNS, in contrast, resolves hostnames to IP addresses. FTP is used for file transfers, while SNMP is primarily used for network monitoring and management. Therefore, DHCP is the appropriate protocol when the goal is to dynamically assign IPv4 addressing and related configuration information.

Q122. A router must forward DHCP broadcast requests from clients to a DHCP server located on another subnet. Which configuration is required?

1) ip helper-address
2) ip default-gateway
3) ip route-cache
4) ipv6 nd prefix

Correct Answer: 1) ip helper-address

Explanation: DHCP client requests are initially sent as broadcast messages, and routers normally do not forward IPv4 broadcasts between subnets. The Cisco ip helper-address command allows a router interface to relay certain UDP broadcasts, including DHCP requests, toward a configured DHCP server. The command is normally applied to the Layer 3 interface facing the clients. This allows clients and servers to remain on different IP networks while still using centralized DHCP services. The ip default-gateway command is used primarily on Layer 2 devices, while the other options do not provide DHCP relay functionality.

Q123. Which first-hop redundancy protocol is a Cisco proprietary protocol designed to provide a virtual default gateway?

1) OSPF
2) STP
3) HSRP
4) BGP

Correct Answer: 3) HSRP

Explanation: Hot Standby Router Protocol, or HSRP, is a Cisco-developed first-hop redundancy protocol that allows multiple routers to provide gateway redundancy. HSRP creates a virtual IP address and virtual MAC address that hosts use as their default gateway. One router operates as the active router, while another can remain in a standby role and take over if the active router fails. This improves network availability because hosts do not need to change their default gateway configuration during a router failure. OSPF and BGP are routing protocols, while STP provides Layer 2 loop prevention.

Q124. What is the primary purpose of a floating static route?

1) To create a backup path with a higher administrative distance
2) To replace all dynamic routing protocols
3) To provide automatic DNS resolution
4) To increase Ethernet frame size

Correct Answer: 1) To create a backup path with a higher administrative distance

Explanation: A floating static route is a manually configured static route assigned an administrative distance higher than the preferred routing source. Because routes with lower administrative distance are preferred, the floating static route normally remains inactive in the routing table while the primary route is available. If the primary route disappears, the floating static route can become active and provide an alternate path. This technique is useful for basic WAN redundancy and backup connectivity. It does not replace all dynamic routing protocols, provide DNS services, or change Ethernet frame sizes.

Q125. Which command displays the IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

1) show interfaces status
2) show vlan brief
3) show ip route
4) show cdp neighbors

Correct Answer: 3) show ip route

Explanation: The show ip route command displays the IPv4 routing table maintained by a Cisco router. The output identifies connected, static, and dynamically learned routes, along with routing sources and next-hop information. Administrators use this command extensively when troubleshooting connectivity and determining how the router will forward packets toward a destination network. show interfaces status provides interface-related information, show vlan brief displays VLAN information on supported switches, and show cdp neighbors displays directly connected Cisco devices discovered through CDP. Therefore, show ip route is the correct command for examining IPv4 routing decisions.

Q126. Which IPv6 address type is designed to identify a group of interfaces and is used for one-to-many communication?

1) Unicast
2) Anycast
3) Multicast
4) Loopback

Correct Answer: 3) Multicast

Explanation: IPv6 multicast addresses identify groups of interfaces and are used for one-to-many communication. When a device sends traffic to an IPv6 multicast address, the network delivers the traffic to participating members of that multicast group. IPv6 relies heavily on multicast and does not use broadcast in the same manner as IPv4. Unicast identifies a single interface, while anycast identifies a group of interfaces where traffic is delivered to the nearest appropriate member. The IPv6 loopback address is used by a host to communicate with itself. Therefore, multicast is the correct choice for group-based communication.

Q127. Which IPv6 address is used to communicate with all IPv6 nodes on the local link?

1) FF02::1
2) FF02::2
3) FE80::1
4) 2001:DB8::1

Correct Answer: 1) FF02::1

Explanation: The IPv6 multicast address FF02::1 represents all IPv6 nodes on the local link. Traffic sent to this address is delivered to all IPv6-enabled nodes on the local network segment. This address is link-local in scope because the FF02 prefix indicates that the multicast traffic remains on the local link. FF02::2 represents all IPv6 routers on the local link. Addresses beginning with FE80:: are link-local unicast addresses, while 2001:DB8::/32 is reserved for documentation. Understanding common IPv6 multicast addresses is important for troubleshooting neighbor discovery and routing operations.

Q128. Which command securely enables remote CLI access using SSH on a Cisco device?

1) transport input telnet
2) transport input ssh
3) ip http server
4) no login

Correct Answer: 2) transport input ssh

Explanation: The transport input ssh command restricts incoming VTY connections to SSH. SSH provides encrypted remote management, protecting usernames, passwords, and administrative sessions from being transmitted as clear text. For a complete SSH configuration, the device generally also requires appropriate hostname and domain configuration, local authentication credentials, and generated RSA keys. Telnet is not preferred for secure management because it sends session information without encryption. The ip http server command enables HTTP-based management, while no login does not provide secure remote access. Therefore, transport input ssh is the appropriate command for restricting VTY access to SSH.

Q129. Which security protocol is commonly used to encrypt and authenticate IP traffic between network devices?

1) TFTP
2) FTP
3) IPsec
4) ARP

Correct Answer: 3) IPsec

Explanation: IPsec is a suite of protocols designed to secure IP communications by providing functions such as authentication, integrity protection, confidentiality, and anti-replay protection. It is commonly used to build secure site-to-site VPNs and remote-access VPN solutions. IPsec can use technologies such as Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to provide encryption and integrity services. TFTP and FTP are file-transfer protocols and do not provide IP-layer VPN security. ARP maps IPv4 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses and does not encrypt traffic. Therefore, IPsec is the appropriate technology for securing IP traffic between network devices.

Q130. What is the main purpose of an access control list (ACL) on a Cisco router?

1) To increase interface bandwidth
2) To filter traffic according to defined criteria
3) To assign VLAN numbers
4) To automatically create routing protocols

Correct Answer: 2) To filter traffic according to defined criteria

Explanation: An access control list, or ACL, allows administrators to control network traffic based on criteria such as source address, destination address, protocol, and port number. ACLs can be applied to router interfaces to permit or deny specific traffic. Standard ACLs primarily evaluate source IPv4 addresses, while extended ACLs can evaluate additional characteristics such as protocols and port numbers. ACLs are processed according to their configured sequence, and an implicit deny exists at the end of an ACL. ACLs do not increase bandwidth, create VLANs, or automatically configure routing protocols.

Q131. Which ACL type provides the greatest ability to filter IPv4 traffic based on protocol and port information?

1) Standard ACL
2) Extended ACL
3) Named standard ACL only
4) MAC address table

Correct Answer: 2) Extended ACL

Explanation: Extended IPv4 ACLs provide more detailed traffic-filtering capabilities than standard ACLs. They can evaluate source and destination IP addresses, IP protocols, and TCP or UDP port numbers. This allows administrators to create policies such as permitting HTTP traffic from one subnet while denying other traffic. Standard ACLs primarily use the source IPv4 address as their matching criterion. A named ACL is simply an organizational and configuration format and can be standard or extended. A MAC address table is not an ACL and is used by switches to determine where Ethernet frames should be forwarded.

Q132. Which command is commonly used to verify the status and IP addressing of router interfaces?

1) show ip interface brief
2) show running-config vlan
3) show spanning-tree root
4) show flash

Correct Answer: 1) show ip interface brief

Explanation: The show ip interface brief command provides a concise summary of router interfaces, including interface names, assigned IP addresses, and operational status. It is one of the most useful commands for quickly identifying whether an interface is administratively disabled or operationally down. The output commonly includes the Status and Protocol columns, helping administrators distinguish between different interface problems. Commands such as show spanning-tree root focus on Layer 2 spanning-tree information, while show flash displays files stored in flash memory. Therefore, show ip interface brief is the preferred quick verification command for interface status and addressing.

Q133. Which protocol is commonly used to synchronize the time of network devices?

1) SNMP
2) NTP
3) DHCP
4) TFTP

Correct Answer: 2) NTP

Explanation: Network Time Protocol, or NTP, is used to synchronize clocks across network devices. Accurate time is important for troubleshooting, event correlation, authentication mechanisms, logging, and security investigations. Cisco routers and switches can synchronize their system clocks with an NTP server, helping ensure that timestamps in logs are consistent across the infrastructure. SNMP is primarily used for monitoring and management, DHCP provides network configuration information, and TFTP is a simple file-transfer protocol. Accurate time synchronization becomes especially valuable when administrators need to compare events recorded by multiple devices during a network incident.

Q134. What is the primary purpose of SNMP in a network environment?

1) Encrypting VPN traffic
2) Assigning IP addresses
3) Monitoring and managing network devices
4) Preventing Layer 2 loops

Correct Answer: 3) Monitoring and managing network devices

Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol, or SNMP, is commonly used to monitor and manage network devices such as routers, switches, firewalls, and servers. Network management systems can use SNMP to collect information about interface utilization, device health, errors, and other operational statistics. SNMP can also support notifications, depending on the configuration. It is not primarily responsible for VPN encryption, IP address assignment, or Layer 2 loop prevention. VPN encryption is handled by technologies such as IPsec, DHCP can assign addresses, and Spanning Tree Protocol is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops.

Q135. Which device feature allows an administrator to capture and inspect traffic from another switch port?

1) SPAN
2) NAT
3) DHCP snooping
4) PortFast

Correct Answer: 1) SPAN

Explanation: Switched Port Analyzer, commonly called SPAN or port mirroring, allows a switch to copy traffic from one or more source ports or VLANs to a destination monitoring port. A network administrator can connect an analyzer, such as a packet-capture system, to the destination port to inspect network traffic. SPAN is useful for troubleshooting, performance analysis, and security monitoring. NAT modifies address information, DHCP snooping helps protect against unauthorized DHCP servers, and PortFast is designed to accelerate edge-port transition through the Spanning Tree process. Therefore, SPAN is the appropriate feature for traffic monitoring.

Q136. What is the main function of DHCP snooping on a Cisco switch?

1) Encrypt DHCP messages
2) Block unauthorized DHCP server responses
3) Assign VLAN IDs automatically
4) Replace the default gateway

Correct Answer: 2) Block unauthorized DHCP server responses

Explanation: DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that helps protect networks from rogue DHCP servers. The switch classifies interfaces as trusted or untrusted. DHCP server responses are normally permitted only through trusted interfaces, while unauthorized DHCP server messages arriving on untrusted ports can be blocked. DHCP snooping can also build a binding database containing information such as client MAC addresses, assigned IP addresses, VLANs, and interfaces. This database can support other security features. DHCP snooping does not encrypt DHCP communication, automatically assign VLAN IDs, or replace the default gateway.

Q137. Which protocol is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops in redundant Ethernet topologies?

1) OSPF
2) STP
3) BGP
4) DHCP

Correct Answer: 2) STP

Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol, or STP, prevents Layer 2 loops by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as potential backup paths. Without loop prevention, redundant Ethernet links can create broadcast storms, duplicate frames, and MAC address instability. STP elects a root bridge and calculates paths toward that root, placing selected interfaces into forwarding or blocking-related states depending on the STP implementation. If an active path fails, STP can allow a previously blocked path to become active. OSPF and BGP are Layer 3 routing protocols, while DHCP provides host configuration rather than loop prevention.

Q138. A network administrator wants to identify the next-hop IP address and outgoing interface used to reach a remote destination. Which tool is most appropriate?

1) traceroute
2) show vlan brief
3) show mac address-table
4) show users

Correct Answer: 1) traceroute

Explanation: The traceroute utility helps identify the Layer 3 path traffic takes toward a remote destination by displaying intermediate hops. On Cisco devices, the traceroute command can help determine where packets stop progressing or which routers are involved along the path. This makes it useful for diagnosing routing problems, latency, and unreachable destinations. show vlan brief provides VLAN information, show mac address-table displays Layer 2 MAC learning information, and show users identifies active management sessions. Therefore, traceroute is the most appropriate option for examining the path toward a remote destination.

Q139. Which routing protocol characteristic describes the administrative distance of an external EIGRP route?

1) 5
2) 20
3) 90
4) 170

Correct Answer: 4) 170

Explanation: Cisco assigns an administrative distance of 170 to external EIGRP routes. Administrative distance determines how trustworthy a routing source is when multiple routing protocols provide routes to the same destination. A lower administrative distance is preferred over a higher value. Internal EIGRP routes have an administrative distance of 90, while external EIGRP routes use 170 because they have been redistributed into EIGRP from another routing source. For comparison, connected routes normally have an administrative distance of 0, static routes commonly use 1, and OSPF uses 110. Understanding these values helps explain route-selection behavior.

Q140. Which command displays the current Cisco device configuration stored in RAM?

1) show startup-config
2) show running-config
3) show version
4) show flash

Correct Answer: 2) show running-config

Explanation: The show running-config command displays the configuration currently active on a Cisco device. This configuration is stored in RAM and represents the settings the device is presently using. When an administrator makes configuration changes, those changes modify the running configuration immediately. To preserve the configuration across a reload, it generally must be copied to the startup configuration in NVRAM. The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration, while show version provides system and software information. show flash displays files stored in flash memory. Therefore, show running-config is correct.