CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps — Part 2 (Q21–40)

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Question 21

Which security control is primarily designed to prevent unauthorized users from accessing a network?

  1. Firewall
  2. Load balancer
  3. Proxy server
  4. Database server

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A firewall is a security control that monitors and filters network traffic based on predefined security rules. It can prevent unauthorized connections by allowing legitimate traffic while blocking traffic that violates the organization’s security policy. Firewalls can inspect characteristics such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, and applications to enforce network security.

Question 22

Which authentication method provides the strongest protection against credential-based attacks?

  1. Password-only authentication
  2. Multifactor authentication
  3. Username-only authentication
  4. Security questions

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Multifactor authentication (MFA) requires users to provide two or more different authentication factors before access is granted. These factors can include something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is. MFA reduces the risk of account compromise because an attacker typically needs more than a stolen password to gain access.

Question 23

A security administrator wants to ensure that users receive only the permissions required to perform their assigned tasks. Which principle should be implemented?

  1. Separation of duties
  2. Least privilege
  3. Job rotation
  4. Mandatory vacation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The principle of least privilege requires users, applications, and systems to receive only the permissions necessary to perform their assigned functions. Limiting privileges reduces the potential impact of compromised accounts and helps prevent unauthorized access to sensitive resources. Organizations should periodically review permissions to identify and remove unnecessary privileges.

Question 24

Which type of attack attempts to make a service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from many compromised systems?

  1. Phishing
  2. DDoS
  3. Credential stuffing
  4. Privilege escalation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack uses multiple compromised systems to generate a large volume of traffic or requests toward a target. The objective is to consume network bandwidth, system resources, or application capacity so legitimate users cannot access the service. Organizations can use traffic filtering, rate limiting, load balancing, and dedicated DDoS protection to reduce the impact.

Question 25

Which security technology is primarily used to detect and block malicious network activity in real time?

  1. IDS
  2. IPS
  3. DNS
  4. DHCP

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) monitors network traffic for suspicious or malicious activity and can automatically take action to block detected threats. An intrusion detection system (IDS), in contrast, primarily detects suspicious activity and generates alerts. IPS solutions can use signatures, behavioral analysis, and other inspection techniques to prevent malicious traffic from reaching protected systems.

Question 26

Which type of malware can replicate itself across systems without requiring a user to execute an infected file?

  1. Worm
  2. Trojan
  3. Spyware
  4. Rootkit

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A worm is a type of malware that can replicate itself and spread from one system to another without necessarily requiring user interaction. Worms commonly exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems, applications, or network services. Because they can spread automatically, worms may rapidly compromise multiple systems within an organization.

Question 27

Which security concept ensures that an individual cannot deny having performed a specific action?

  1. Availability
  2. Non-repudiation
  3. Obfuscation
  4. Segmentation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Non-repudiation provides evidence that a particular action or transaction was performed by a specific party. Digital signatures, audit logs, and cryptographic mechanisms can help establish this evidence. Non-repudiation is especially important when organizations need to maintain accountability for sensitive transactions or administrative activities.

Question 28

An organization separates its development, testing, and production environments to reduce the risk of unauthorized access between them. Which security concept is being applied?

  1. Network segmentation
  2. Data masking
  3. Password synchronization
  4. Credential recovery

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Network segmentation divides a network or environment into separate sections with controlled communication between them. Separating development, testing, and production systems limits the potential spread of threats and reduces unnecessary access between environments. Segmentation can be implemented using firewalls, VLANs, access control lists, and other network security technologies.

Question 29

Which type of attack attempts to trick a user into revealing sensitive information by impersonating a trusted entity?

  1. Phishing
  2. Brute-force attack
  3. SQL injection
  4. DDoS

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Phishing is a social engineering attack in which an attacker impersonates a trusted person or organization to persuade a victim to provide sensitive information or perform an unsafe action. Attackers may use email, messaging platforms, websites, or other communication methods. Security awareness training and technical controls such as email filtering and multifactor authentication can help reduce phishing-related risks.

Question 30

Which encryption method uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

  1. Asymmetric encryption
  2. Symmetric encryption
  3. Hashing
  4. Digital signing

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key for both encryption and decryption. It is generally efficient and is commonly used to protect large amounts of data. The primary challenge is securely distributing and managing the shared key between communicating parties. Examples of symmetric encryption algorithms include AES and ChaCha20.

Question 31

Which technology allows an organization to securely connect remote users to internal network resources over an untrusted network?

  1. VPN
  2. DHCP
  3. NAT
  4. DNS

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) creates a protected connection between a remote user and an organization’s network across an untrusted network such as the Internet. VPN technologies commonly use encryption and authentication to protect data in transit. Organizations can use remote-access VPNs to provide employees with secure access to internal resources.

Question 32

Which type of security assessment is designed to identify vulnerabilities by actively attempting to exploit them?

  1. Vulnerability scanning
  2. Penetration testing
  3. Log review
  4. Risk assessment

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Penetration testing involves actively attempting to exploit vulnerabilities in systems, applications, or networks. The objective is to determine whether identified weaknesses can actually be used to compromise security. Penetration testing can provide organizations with a better understanding of the potential impact of vulnerabilities and the effectiveness of existing security controls.

Question 33

Which principle requires two different individuals to complete a sensitive transaction or process?

  1. Least privilege
  2. Separation of duties
  3. Defense in depth
  4. Zero trust

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Separation of duties divides critical responsibilities among multiple individuals so that one person cannot complete an entire sensitive process alone. This principle helps reduce fraud, abuse, and unauthorized activity. For example, one employee may create a financial transaction while another employee is responsible for approving it.

Question 34

Which security model assumes that no user or device should be automatically trusted, even when it is located inside the organization’s network?

  1. Zero Trust
  2. Open access
  3. Implicit trust
  4. Perimeter security

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Zero Trust is a security approach based on the principle that users and devices should not be trusted automatically based on their network location. Access should be continuously evaluated using factors such as identity, device security, authentication status, and requested resources. This approach helps reduce the risk associated with compromised accounts and devices.

Question 35

Which type of vulnerability occurs when an application accepts more data than the allocated memory area can safely store?

  1. Buffer overflow
  2. Race condition
  3. SQL injection
  4. Cross-site scripting

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A buffer overflow occurs when a program writes more data into a memory buffer than the buffer is designed to hold. This can cause memory corruption, application crashes, or potentially allow an attacker to execute malicious code. Secure programming practices, input validation, memory protections, and regular software updates can help reduce buffer overflow vulnerabilities.

Question 36

Which attack involves inserting malicious SQL statements into an application’s database query?

  1. LDAP injection
  2. SQL injection
  3. Command injection
  4. XML injection

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

SQL injection occurs when an attacker inserts malicious SQL commands into input fields or other application parameters that are incorporated into database queries. If the application does not properly validate or parameterize input, the attacker may access, modify, or delete database information. Parameterized queries and proper input validation are important defenses against SQL injection.

Question 37

Which security control is most effective for detecting unauthorized changes to important system files?

  1. File integrity monitoring
  2. Network address translation
  3. Load balancing
  4. Data compression

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

File integrity monitoring (FIM) detects changes to files and system configurations by comparing their current state against an expected baseline. Unexpected modifications can indicate malware activity, unauthorized access, or configuration changes. FIM can generate alerts that allow security teams to investigate suspicious changes quickly.

Question 38

Which type of malware is designed to secretly collect information about a user’s activities?

  1. Spyware
  2. Worm
  3. Boot sector virus
  4. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Spyware is malware designed to monitor users and collect information without their knowledge or authorization. Depending on its capabilities, spyware may capture browsing activity, credentials, keystrokes, or other sensitive information. Endpoint security software, application controls, security updates, and user awareness can help reduce the risk of spyware infections.

Question 39

Which security control provides a record of user activities and system events that can be reviewed during an investigation?

  1. Audit logging
  2. Network segmentation
  3. Data encryption
  4. Access control

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Audit logging records activities and events occurring within systems, applications, and networks. Logs can contain information such as authentication attempts, administrative actions, configuration changes, and access to resources. Security teams can analyze these records to identify suspicious activity, investigate incidents, and establish accountability.

Question 40

Which backup strategy provides the fastest restoration of a system because it maintains a complete copy of the data?

  1. Incremental backup
  2. Differential backup
  3. Full backup
  4. Transaction log backup

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A full backup creates a complete copy of the selected data at the time the backup is performed. Because all required data is contained in one backup set, restoration is generally simpler and faster than restoring from multiple incremental backup sets. The primary disadvantage is that full backups typically require more storage space and can take longer to complete.