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Question 101

A project manager notices that a stakeholder’s expectations differ from the approved project objectives. What should the project manager do first?

1. Ignore the stakeholder
2. Clarify the expectations and align them with project objectives
3. Change the objectives immediately
4. Remove the stakeholder

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The project manager should first understand the stakeholder’s expectations and compare them with the approved project objectives. A discussion can reveal misunderstandings, changing needs, or gaps in communication. If the expectations are valid and significant, the appropriate change process can be considered. However, changing objectives without proper analysis and authorization could create uncontrolled changes. Ignoring or removing the stakeholder can increase resistance. Clear alignment between stakeholder expectations and project objectives helps maintain support and reduces the possibility of conflict later in the project.

Question 102

Which document provides a high-level description of project goals and requirements?

1. Project charter
2. Issue log
3. Team charter
4. Risk register

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The project charter provides high-level information about the project, including its purpose, objectives, major requirements, assumptions, constraints, risks, stakeholders, and high-level milestones. It formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority to use organizational resources. The risk register focuses on identified risks, while the issue log tracks problems that require resolution. A team charter focuses more specifically on team values, working agreements, and operating guidelines. The project charter therefore provides the foundational high-level direction for the project.

Question 103

A team member identifies a potential opportunity to reduce project costs. What should the project manager do?

1. Ignore the opportunity
2. Analyze the opportunity and possible response
3. Spend the savings immediately
4. Change the budget without approval

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

An opportunity that could reduce project costs should be evaluated before action is taken. The project manager should determine the potential benefit, feasibility, impact on scope and quality, and any risks associated with pursuing the opportunity. If the opportunity is worthwhile, an appropriate response can be selected and implemented according to project governance. Spending expected savings or changing the approved budget without authorization may create financial control problems. Managing positive risks systematically allows the project to capture benefits while maintaining alignment with approved objectives and constraints.

Question 104

What does an EAC estimate?

1. Expected total project cost at completion
2. Expected project duration only
3. Total project scope
4. Number of stakeholders

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Estimate at Completion, or EAC, represents the expected total cost of the project when all planned work is completed. It is calculated using different formulas depending on the project’s current performance and assumptions about future performance. EAC helps the project manager and stakeholders understand whether the current budget is likely to remain sufficient. It can be compared with the budget at completion to identify potential cost overruns or savings. EAC is a cost forecasting measure and does not directly represent project duration, scope, or stakeholder count.

Question 105

A project team has unclear decision-making authority. What should the project manager do?

1. Clarify roles and decision rights
2. Make every decision personally
3. Let conflicts continue
4. Ask the customer to decide everything

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Clear decision-making authority helps teams work efficiently and reduces delays and conflicts. The project manager should clarify who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for relevant decisions. Existing project governance documents, team agreements, organizational policies, or responsibility assignment information can help establish this clarity. Making every decision personally can create a bottleneck and reduce team empowerment. Allowing confusion to continue can result in inconsistent decisions. Clearly defined authority supports accountability, collaboration, and faster resolution of project issues.

Question 106

A project manager wants to determine whether a project is ahead or behind schedule. Which measure is most useful?

1. SPI
2. CPI
3. BAC
4. AC

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The Schedule Performance Index, or SPI, is used to assess schedule efficiency by comparing earned value with planned value. An SPI of 1.0 indicates performance consistent with the planned schedule. A value below 1.0 generally indicates that the project is behind the planned rate of progress, while a value above 1.0 indicates favorable schedule performance. CPI measures cost efficiency, BAC represents the approved total budget, and AC represents actual cost incurred. SPI should be considered alongside other schedule information when evaluating overall project performance.

Question 107

A project manager is preparing a stakeholder communication. What should determine the level of detail?

1. Stakeholder information needs
2. The length of the project
3. The project manager’s preference
4. The number of team members

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Communication should be tailored to the needs, responsibilities, influence, and information requirements of the intended audience. Executives may prefer concise information about major risks, decisions, progress, and benefits, while technical stakeholders may require more detailed information. Providing too much unnecessary information can cause information overload, while insufficient detail can lead to misunderstandings. The project manager’s personal preference should not determine the communication level. Effective communication planning ensures that the right information reaches the right stakeholder in an appropriate format and at the right time.

Question 108

A project manager discovers that a planned activity depends on an external organization. What should be done?

1. Identify and manage the external dependency
2. Remove the activity automatically
3. Ignore the dependency
4. Change the project objective

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

External dependencies can affect project timing, resources, risks, and deliverables, so they should be identified and actively managed. The project manager should understand the dependency, determine responsible parties, assess possible impacts, and establish appropriate communication or coordination mechanisms. If the dependency creates significant risk, response strategies may also be required. Automatically removing the activity or changing project objectives does not address the underlying dependency. Effective dependency management helps the project team anticipate delays and coordinate work with external parties.

Question 109

Which activity best supports quality assurance?

1. Improving the processes used to create deliverables
2. Counting completed tasks only
3. Assigning project salaries
4. Closing the project

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Quality assurance focuses on evaluating and improving project processes to increase confidence that deliverables will meet requirements. The project team may review processes, conduct audits, identify process weaknesses, and implement improvements. Quality control, in contrast, focuses more directly on inspecting and testing deliverables to identify defects. Simply counting completed tasks does not ensure quality. Salary administration and project closure are unrelated to quality assurance. Strong quality processes help prevent defects rather than relying only on detecting problems after deliverables have been produced.

Question 110

A project manager wants to reduce the chance of a threat occurring. Which risk response is appropriate?

1. Mitigate
2. Exploit
3. Enhance
4. Share

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Mitigation involves taking action to reduce the probability or impact of a threat to an acceptable level. Examples may include additional testing, training, redundancy, preventive maintenance, or changing an approach to reduce exposure. Exploit and enhance are responses generally associated with opportunities, while sharing can be used when responsibility for an opportunity or threat is allocated to another party under an appropriate arrangement. Selecting a response should depend on the nature of the risk, project objectives, cost, effectiveness, and organizational risk thresholds.

Question 111

A team is debating two possible solutions to a technical problem. What should the project manager encourage?

1. Evidence-based evaluation
2. Personal attacks
3. Immediate escalation
4. Avoiding the discussion

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The project manager should encourage the team to evaluate the alternatives using objective information such as requirements, technical feasibility, risks, costs, quality considerations, and expected outcomes. Evidence-based discussion helps the team make a sound decision while reducing personal conflict. Immediate escalation may be unnecessary if the team can resolve the matter collaboratively. Avoiding the discussion leaves the problem unresolved. The project manager’s role is to facilitate productive decision-making and ensure that the selected solution supports project objectives rather than being based on personal preferences.

Question 112

A project manager calculates EV = $80,000 and AC = $70,000. What is the CPI?

1. 0.88
2. 1.14
3. 1.88
4. 0.14

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The Cost Performance Index is calculated as CPI = EV / AC. With earned value of $80,000 and actual cost of $70,000, the calculation is 80,000 / 70,000 = approximately 1.14. A CPI greater than 1.0 indicates favorable cost efficiency because the project is earning more value than the amount being spent. A CPI below 1.0 would indicate unfavorable cost performance. The project manager should still review other performance indicators because a favorable cost result does not automatically mean the project is performing well in every area.

Question 113

A project manager is working with a newly formed team. What should be established early?

1. Team working agreements
2. Final lessons learned
3. Project closure report
4. Contract termination plan

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Team working agreements establish expectations for collaboration, communication, meetings, decision-making, conflict management, and other team behaviors. Creating these agreements early helps team members understand how they will work together and supports a healthy team environment. Lessons learned and closure reports are generally developed later, while contract termination is only relevant when appropriate. Working agreements can also be revisited as the team evolves. Clear expectations help reduce misunderstandings and provide a shared framework for resolving behavioral and collaboration issues.

Question 114

A project manager identifies a conflict between project requirements and organizational policies. What should the manager do?

1. Assess the conflict and follow applicable governance requirements
2. Ignore the policy
3. Ignore the project requirement
4. Allow the team to choose secretly

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Conflicts between project requirements and organizational policies should be analyzed carefully because policies and governance requirements may establish mandatory constraints. The project manager should determine the nature of the conflict, consult appropriate governance or compliance stakeholders, and identify an authorized resolution. Simply ignoring a policy can expose the organization to significant risk. Ignoring the requirement without analysis may also undermine project objectives. Decisions should be transparent, documented when necessary, and consistent with organizational governance and applicable regulations.

Question 115

What is the main purpose of a product backlog?

1. To contain and prioritize product work
2. To record employee salaries
3. To replace the project charter
4. To track only completed work

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The product backlog contains work that may be needed to improve or develop the product. Items can include features, requirements, enhancements, defects, and other work. The backlog is ordered so that the team can focus on the most valuable or important work first. It is dynamic and can change as the team and stakeholders learn more about the product. The product backlog is not simply a record of completed work and does not replace project authorization documents. Effective backlog management supports incremental value delivery.

Question 116

A stakeholder has low influence but high interest. How should the project manager generally manage the stakeholder?

1. Keep informed
2. Manage closely
3. Keep unaware
4. Avoid communication

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Stakeholders with high interest but relatively low influence should generally be kept informed. They may care strongly about project outcomes and can provide useful feedback, even if they do not have significant decision-making authority. Appropriate communication keeps them aware of progress, changes, and relevant decisions without requiring the same level of engagement used for highly influential stakeholders. Ignoring them can result in dissatisfaction or missed information. Stakeholder engagement should remain tailored, practical, and responsive to the stakeholder’s needs and project impact.

Question 117

A project manager receives an approved change request. What should happen next?

1. Update the relevant project documents and plans
2. Ignore the change
3. Hide the change from the team
4. Cancel the project

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Once a change is formally approved, the project manager should ensure that relevant project documents, plans, baselines, schedules, budgets, requirements, and other affected information are updated as appropriate. The team and affected stakeholders should also be informed about the approved change. Ignoring an approved change creates inconsistency between the authorized decision and project execution. Hiding the change can cause confusion and errors. Proper implementation and documentation ensure that the project continues to operate according to the latest approved direction.

Question 118

A team member reports that a requirement is unclear. What should the project manager do?

1. Clarify the requirement with the appropriate stakeholders
2. Let the team guess
3. Ignore the concern
4. Remove the requirement

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

An unclear requirement should be clarified before significant work is performed based on assumptions. The project manager should engage the appropriate stakeholders and subject matter experts to understand the intended outcome, acceptance conditions, and constraints. Allowing the team to guess can result in rework and an incorrect deliverable. Ignoring the concern may allow ambiguity to grow, while removing the requirement without authorization can create scope problems. Clear requirements help the team deliver the expected product and provide a reliable basis for validation and acceptance.

Question 119

A project manager wants to determine why an activity is taking longer than planned. What should be reviewed first?

1. Actual performance and contributing factors
2. Team members’ personal interests
3. Future project marketing
4. Office layout

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The project manager should review actual performance and identify the factors contributing to the delay. Possible causes may include inaccurate estimates, resource constraints, dependencies, technical difficulties, scope changes, or unexpected risks. Understanding the cause is essential before selecting corrective action. Simply assigning blame does not solve the problem. Reviewing objective performance information allows the project manager to determine whether the delay is isolated or part of a broader trend. Appropriate corrective action can then be developed based on evidence and project priorities.

Question 120

A project is completed successfully and all deliverables have been accepted. What should the project manager preserve for future organizational use?

1. Lessons learned and relevant project knowledge
2. Unapproved scope requests
3. Personal complaints
4. Unverified assumptions only

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Completed projects contain valuable knowledge that can improve future project performance. The project manager should preserve relevant lessons learned, project records, successful practices, challenges, decisions, and other useful organizational knowledge according to established procedures. This information can help future teams improve estimating, planning, risk management, stakeholder engagement, and execution. Unapproved scope requests and isolated personal complaints do not provide the same structured organizational value. Proper knowledge preservation supports continuous improvement and prevents future teams from repeating avoidable mistakes.