Are you diligently preparing for the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)® certification exam? Seeking invaluable, free PMI-ACP practice questions to bolster your preparation efforts? You’ve arrived at the perfect destination. This comprehensive resource presents a curated selection of top-tier, complimentary PMI-ACP exam questions meticulously designed to fortify your understanding and readiness for this esteemed certification.

The PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) certification is specifically tailored for project management professionals who not only embrace Agile principles but also actively employ Agile methodologies within their project endeavors. This credential acknowledges and formally validates an aspirant’s profound expertise in:

• A thorough comprehension of foundational Agile principles and diverse Agile methodologies.
• The adept implementation of Agile practices and methodologies in real-world project scenarios.

To qualify for the PMI-ACP certification, candidates must satisfy specific experience and training prerequisites:

• A minimum of 1 year (or 2,000 hours) of general project management experience acquired within the last 5 years.
• A minimum of 8 months (or 1,500 hours) of Agile-specific project management experience accumulated within the last 3 years (this experience must be distinct from the general project management experience).
• Completion of 21 hours of formal training in Agile practices.

Beyond meeting these foundational educational requirements (which include a high school diploma, secondary degree, or associate’s degree) and accumulating the requisite experience, the cornerstone of your PMI-ACP exam preparation lies in following a well-structured study guide and leveraging high-quality resources. While a robust preparation track is fundamental, the ultimate step in your journey involves rigorous practice. Engaging with mock exams is extraordinarily beneficial; they serve as a potent tool for gauging your current preparedness, cultivating self-assurance, and acclimatizing you to the format and pressure of the actual examination.

To assist you in precisely assessing your depth of knowledge, our team of seasoned subject matter experts has meticulously crafted a series of PMI-ACP practice tests. Below, we present a selection of these free PMI-ACP exam questions, each accompanied by an exhaustive explanation for both the correct and incorrect answer choices. This detailed rationale is designed to deepen your understanding of Agile concepts and principles. Challenge yourself with these complimentary PMI-ACP exam questions now and ascertain the true extent of your readiness for the PMI-ACP Certification exam. Let’s discern how many of these questions you can adeptly answer, leveraging your existing Agile acumen and practical experience!

For a cutting edge in your PMI-ACP preparation, consider exploring a comprehensive Preparation Guide for the PMI-ACP exam.

PMI-ACP Practice Question Set

Question 1: Role and Responsibility in Agile Projects

An Agile practitioner is elucidating to his team the intricate relationships between the development team and the customer, as well as the distinct responsibilities of each party within Agile project management. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects this dynamic?

1. The customer defines value and assesses the user experience, not the development team. B. The development team unilaterally sets the priority among features, rather than the customer. C. The customer dictates the precise methods for performing the work, not the development team. D. The development team autonomously determines which features should be developed first.

Answer: Choice A is the correct answer.

Explanation: In the realm of Agile project management, the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders—including the customer, Product Owner, development team, and others—are meticulously defined. The initial product scope and its constituent features are primarily articulated by the customer or their designated proxies, such as a Product Owner. Furthermore, these features, often represented as user stories, are prioritized by the customer or Product Owner based on their perceived value, thereby indicating the sequence in which stories should be developed. The actual execution of development work, however, squarely rests with the development team. It is the development team that possesses the autonomy and expertise to determine how the work will be performed, including the specific approaches, techniques, and tools to be employed in the development process. Finally, upon completion of the development work and its handover to the customer, it is the customer who definitively defines value and rigorously assesses the user experience, rather than the development team. The customer’s role is to validate whether the delivered product unequivocally meets their needs and the expectations of the ultimate end-users.

• Option A is correct. In Agile project management, the definition of value and the assessment of user experience are inherent responsibilities of the customer, not the development team. Therefore, the statement “The customer defines value and checks the user experience, not the development team” is accurate.
• Option B is incorrect. It is the customer, often through the Product Owner, who is responsible for setting the priority among features, not the development team. Thus, the statement “The development team sets the priority among the features, not the customer” is inaccurate.
• Option C is incorrect. In Agile management, the customer does not typically dictate how the work is performed; rather, it is the development team itself that defines the methods, approaches, and techniques to be followed in the development process. Consequently, the statement “The customer determines how to perform the work, not the development team” is incorrect.
• Option D is incorrect. In Agile project management, the development team does not determine which features should be developed first. This prioritization is fundamentally driven by the customer or their proxy. Hence, the statement “The development team determines which features should be developed first” is not correct.

Question 2: Identifying Waste in Agile Environments

An experienced Agile practitioner has been assigned to contribute to two distinct projects concurrently. On a rough daily approximation, he dedicates 50% of his time to each project. Which of the following is the type of waste most likely to manifest in such an arrangement?

1. Defects B. Task switching C. Partially done work D. Motion

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: Software development, particularly within Agile frameworks, identifies several types of waste. These commonly include: extra features, extra processes, partially done work, motion (unnecessary movement of information or people), waiting (idle time), task switching, and defects. While all the given choices represent forms of waste, in the described scenario where an Agile practitioner is working on two different projects and must constantly transition between them, the most probable and prevalent form of waste is unequivocally task switching. This is due to the inherent cognitive overhead and time lost when shifting focus between unrelated contexts.

• Option A is incorrect. While defects are indeed a type of waste and can regrettably exist in any code, the question specifically asks for the most likely occurrence of waste given the scenario. Although increased task switching could indirectly lead to more defects, it is not the direct and primary waste being described. The direct waste emanating from switching between projects is the act of switching itself.
• Option B is correct. As the Agile practitioner is engaged with two different projects and is compelled to frequently transition between them, the waste associated with task switching will undoubtedly be present and significant. This mental and contextual shift reduces overall efficiency.
• Option C is incorrect. While it is plausible that in the given scenario, the Agile practitioner might leave one task in a partially completed state before transitioning to the second, the question is inquiring about the most likely primary form of waste directly caused by the arrangement. While “partially done work” is a valid waste, the immediate and most direct consequence of working on two projects simultaneously is the need for task switching.
• Option D is incorrect. Motion, as a type of waste, generally refers to the effort required to transfer deliverables or information from one group to another, and it is particularly associated with distributed teams. The information provided in the question is insufficient to validate or dismiss this assumption, making it a less likely primary answer compared to the direct implications of context switching.

Question 3: Optimal Testing Approaches in Agile

A customer, a tester, and a developer were engaged in a discourse concerning the most effective testing approach for their project when an Agile practitioner fortuitously overheard their conversation. Which of the following approaches would an Agile practitioner most emphatically recommend in this situation?

1. Utilizing manual, rather than automated, testing tools. B. Postponing the initiation of testing to a later phase, rather than commencing it early, in the development cycle. C. Restricting quality assurance activities solely to the identification of defects. D. Developing code in accordance with the anticipated results of acceptance tests.

Answer: Choice D is the correct answer.

Explanation: The approach described in Option D aligns directly with Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD), a cornerstone Agile practice. ATDD involves the collaborative creation of acceptance tests before any code development commences. These tests fundamentally represent the expected behavior and acceptance criteria of the functionality at an acceptance level. By employing ATDD, the precise behavior the software should exhibit is determined upfront, providing a clear and granular “definition of done” from the very outset of development. This shifts the focus from merely identifying bugs to proactively building quality in.

• Option A is incorrect. Automated testing is a highly efficient and recommended testing approach in Agile environments. It enables rapid feedback, ensures wide test coverage, and is crucial for supporting continuous integration and delivery practices. Manual testing, while sometimes necessary, is generally not preferred as the primary method for ensuring comprehensive and repeatable quality.
• Option B is incorrect. A core tenet of Agile is to initiate testing early and continuously throughout the development cycle, rather than deferring it. Early and frequent testing significantly reduces the risk of accumulating technical debt, unearthing major defects late in the process, and ensures consistent quality checks. This practice is known as “Shift-Left” testing.
• Option C is incorrect. Limiting quality assurance activities solely to defect identification is not a holistic Agile strategy. Quality assurance in Agile encompasses a broader scope, involving proactive risk identification, prevention of defects through practices like ATDD and pair programming, and continuous improvement, rather than just reactive bug finding.
• Option D is correct. Developing code in alignment with the results of acceptance tests (i.e., Acceptance Test-Driven Development) is a quintessential Agile practice. This methodology inherently improves quality by ensuring that quality considerations are integrated into the earliest phases of development by the entire team, leading to software that truly meets stakeholder expectations.

Question 4: Understanding Dot Voting in Agile Prioritization

An Agile team has been assigned the task of developing a software product. The project leader is assisting the team in prioritizing the requirements by employing the dot voting technique. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate description of dot voting?

1. Dot voting, also known as the 100-point method, empowers customers to allocate dots to various features. B. Dot voting graphically represents features with axes as dots, classifying each feature by anticipated customer response. C. Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, furnishes every participant with a fixed number of dots for voting. D. Dot voting employs a fixed number of votes to rank priorities from high to low within a simplistic scheme.

Answer: Choice C is the correct answer.

Explanation: Given the multitude of features or user stories inherent in a product, their prioritization is crucial for an Agile team to consistently deliver maximum customer value throughout the project lifecycle. Dot voting, also referred to as multi-voting, is a widely utilized and straightforward scheme for feature prioritization. This technique is particularly effective on a smaller scale and does not necessitate complex tools for its implementation. In this method, attendees are provided with a common set of physical or virtual dots (or similar markers) and are instructed to place these dots next to their preferred choices or highest-priority items.

• Option A is incorrect. The 100-Point method is a distinct and separate customer value prioritization scheme. In this method, each participant is explicitly given exactly 100 points to distribute among different features, allowing for weighted preferences. Therefore, equating “Dot voting” with the “100-point method” is inaccurate.
• Option B is incorrect. The description “Dot voting draws the features on a graph with axes as dots and classifies each feature by how customers will respond” inaccurately portrays dot voting. This description, if the “dots” reference is removed, bears resemblance to the Kano analysis, which categorizes features based on their impact on customer satisfaction.
• Option C is correct. In the dot voting technique, attendees are indeed provided with a fixed number of common dots to place next to their choices, making it a form of multi-voting for prioritizing features. Hence, the statement “Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, provides every attendant a fixed number of dots for voting” is the most appropriate and accurate description.
• Option D is incorrect. While dot voting does involve a fixed number of “votes” (dots) and aims to rank priorities, the description “Dot voting uses a fixed number of votes to rank priorities from high to low in a simple scheme” is too generic and doesn’t fully capture the essence of dot voting, which is its visual and distributive nature. It sounds like a simplified voting technique but not specifically dot voting.

Question 5: Agile Testing Techniques in Practice

A Product Owner has configured a room with five laptops and extended invitations to four diverse end-users to rigorously test the capabilities of a nascent system. Developers from the project team have also been invited into the room to meticulously observe the users, diligently record observations, and address any rudimentary questions. Which of the following Agile techniques and tools is precisely described in this scenario?

1. Usability testing B. Automated testing C. Scripted testing D. Exploratory testing

Answer: Choice A is the correct answer.

Explanation: The scenario unequivocally describes Usability Testing. Usability testing is a specialized type of testing that intrinsically involves actual end-users interacting with a system under realistic, practical circumstances. The paramount objective of this testing is to ascertain the ease with which end-users can navigate and utilize the system, and crucially, to expose any usability impediments or defects that may necessitate subsequent modifications or redesigns. The relevant personnel, in this instance, the developers, closely observe the end-users as they engage with the system, capture pertinent notes, and provide immediate answers to their queries. To comprehensively analyze the system’s ease of use, data can be collected through a myriad of approaches, including but not limited to videotaping user sessions, direct observation, employing eye-tracking tools, and conducting post-testing interviews.

• Option A is correct. Usability testing is a method where end-users are engaged to evaluate a system’s responsiveness and intuitiveness in real-world conditions. Since the given scenario involves inviting end-users to test a new system and developers observing their interactions, taking notes, and answering questions, it perfectly aligns with the description of usability testing.
• Option B is incorrect. Automated testing is inherently linked with continuous integration practices. It involves the automatic execution of software code tests whenever code is committed or at regular intervals to ensure that new or modified code has not introduced regressions and compiles correctly. This is distinct from user interaction-based testing.
• Option C is incorrect. In scripted testing, a dedicated tester executes predefined test cases against planned criteria. End-users are typically not involved in this type of testing, which primarily focuses on verifying functionality against explicit requirements.
• Option D is incorrect. Similar to scripted testing, exploratory testing also involves a dedicated tester, but with a fundamentally different objective. The primary goal of exploratory testing is to uncover unexpected behaviors, edge cases, and latent issues in the system through concurrent test design and execution, rather than following a predefined script or observing end-users.

Question 6: Applying Crystal Methodologies in Complex Projects

You are an Agile practitioner contributing to a critical medical application development project. Within your company, the Crystal family of methods is specifically employed for such intricate projects that necessitate the involvement of multiple teams. Which of the following Crystal methodologies would you, as an Agile practitioner, most aptly recommend using the Crystal grid?

1. A darker color and softer Crystal methodology from the upper right corner. B. A darker color and harder Crystal methodology from the upper right corner. C. A clearer color and harder Crystal methodology from the upper left corner. D. A clearer color and softer Crystal methodology from the upper left corner.

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: Crystal is a comprehensive family of Agile methods utilized for implementation concerns across various types of projects, accommodating diverse team sizes. This framework discerns the unique characteristics of projects based on several critical factors, including system criticality, team size, and project priority.

The Crystal family of methods is visually represented by a grid where team size is depicted on the horizontal axis and project criticality is represented on the vertical axis. Project criticality denotes the potential severity of impact should a defect arise within the system. As one traverses to the right along the horizontal axis of the grid, it signifies coordination with an increasing number of people, which consequently necessitates a heavier methodology, symbolized by choosing a darker color (e.g., Crystal Clear to Crystal Orange to Crystal Red). Conversely, an upward movement along the vertical axis in the grid indicates a higher potential for damage from system failures, implying an increased “hardness” or rigor required in the methodology.

In the described scenario, the project entails the development of a critical medical application, and it involves multiple teams working collaboratively. When the team size is substantial (multiple teams), a darker color methodology is appropriate. Given the higher criticality of the medical application (where defects could have severe consequences), a harder Crystal methodology is mandated. Therefore, a darker color and harder Crystal methodology from the upper right corner of the grid should be selected for this specific scenario.

• Option A is incorrect. The question explicitly mentions the development of a critical medical application. For such high-criticality projects, a harder Crystal methodology is indispensable; a softer Crystal methodology would be insufficient.
• Option B is correct. The project involves multiple teams, indicating a large team size, which corresponds to a darker color methodology. Due to the high criticality of the project (medical application), a harder Crystal methodology is required. Both these characteristics align with the upper and right movement on the Crystal grid.
• Option C is incorrect. A clearer color on the Crystal grid signifies a smaller team size. In the given scenario, with multiple teams engaged in the project, the team size is clearly large, thus necessitating a darker color to represent the team size.
• Option D is incorrect. Similar to option C, a clearer color denotes a smaller team size. Since the team size is large in this scenario, a darker color is appropriate. Additionally, due to the high criticality, a harder methodology is required, not a softer one.

Question 7: Scrum Master’s Role in Managing Stakeholder Interference

Ryan is a Scrum Master overseeing a team engaged in an Agile project. The team members frequently voice complaints that their work is being delayed because a new sponsor, who is unfamiliar with Agile methodology and practices, persistently queries them about project details. As a Scrum Master, how would you address this situation?

1. Engage in a discussion with the Product Owner and request his assistance in liaising with the new sponsor. B. Directly contact the sponsor and respectfully request that all questions be directed solely to you (the Scrum Master). C. Convene a discussion with the team and designate one member as the official spokesperson for the sponsor. D. Instruct the team to seek your (the Scrum Master’s) explicit permission before engaging in any discussions with the sponsor.

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: A Scrum Master’s multifaceted responsibilities include fostering effective conversation and collaboration within and among teams. A paramount duty of the Scrum Master is to shield the development team from any form of interruption that could impede their progress. In the current scenario, the new sponsor’s frequent inquiries directly to the team constitute an interruption that significantly slows down the project’s progress, making it arduous for the team to achieve its defined goals. Consequently, it is the explicit duty of the Scrum Master to proactively engage with the new sponsor, gently educate them on the operational dynamics of Agile methodology, and establish a clear communication channel. The Scrum Master should politely request the new sponsor to channel any questions or queries exclusively through the Scrum Master, rather than directly to the team members. This acts as a protective shield, allowing the team to maintain its focus on development.

• Option A is incorrect. While the Product Owner is indeed a vital stakeholder responsible for delivering the final product, and generally desires uninterrupted project growth, enlisting the Product Owner’s direct assistance in this specific scenario is not the optimal choice. Each role in Scrum has distinct responsibilities, and it is the Scrum Master’s direct duty to protect the team from external disturbances.
• Option B is correct. The most effective and appropriate action for the Scrum Master is to directly communicate with the sponsor. The Scrum Master should educate the sponsor on Agile working principles and establish the proper communication channel for project-related inquiries, ensuring that the team remains undisturbed.
• Option C is incorrect. It is the Scrum Master, not a designated team member, who bears the responsibility for insulating the team from external interruptions. The Scrum Master should personally handle this situation to facilitate the team’s ability to achieve project goals through uninterrupted collaboration. Delegating this to a team member introduces an unnecessary intermediary and distracts a team member from their primary development tasks.
• Option D is incorrect. This approach does not align with how Agile teams typically function. Instructing the team to seek permission before engaging with the sponsor would create unnecessary bureaucracy and potentially impede open communication. The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate and remove impediments, not to introduce new layers of control that could hinder team autonomy and efficiency. Such an approach would also waste the team’s time in waiting for permission and responding to inquiries, diverting them from their actual project objectives.

Question 8: Key Considerations for Effective Daily Stand-Up Meetings

The daily stand-up meeting holds profound importance for an Agile team, as it serves as a critical forum for communication, collaboration, and the formulation of immediate work plans. Many new Agile team members may require clarification on the essence of daily stand-up meetings. Which of the following is the most crucial aspect an Agile practitioner should bear in mind for facilitating an effective daily stand-up meeting?

1. Every team member should actively participate in the daily stand-up meeting; this will inherently help keep the meeting short. B. The daily stand-up meeting ensures that no team member harbors any doubts about the deliverables, and that the team’s performance remains uncompromised. C. The daily stand-up meeting is a concise meeting, strictly limited to 15 minutes; no one can leave the meeting until the discussion concludes. D. The daily stand-up meeting should be well-structured and inherently brief.

Answer: Choice D is the correct answer.

Explanation: Daily meetings, or daily stand-ups, are a cornerstone of various Agile methodologies. In Scrum, it is typically known as the Daily Scrum and is timeboxed to 15 minutes. In eXtreme Programming (XP), it is often referred to as a daily stand-up meeting and is even more tightly timeboxed, usually to 5 minutes. Regardless of the specific methodology, the essence of the daily meeting is to be a short, focused gathering held consistently at the same time each day to keep everyone abreast of vital project information. During this meeting, team members typically address three core questions:

1. What did I do since the last daily stand-up meeting?
2. What am I planning to do today?
3. Are there any impediments or risks I am facing? For the daily stand-up meeting to be effective, it must be well-structured to elicit answers to these questions efficiently, and inherently brief to respect everyone’s time and maintain focus.

• Option A is incorrect. While it is highly recommended that every team member participate in the daily stand-up meeting to foster transparency and collective ownership, the statement that this alone will keep the meeting short is not the most crucial factor for effectiveness. The structure and adherence to the timebox are more impactful.
• Option B is incorrect. The daily stand-up meeting does indeed involve discussions about impediments (risks and issues) which helps address potential blockers and ensures team performance. However, stating that it “helps to make sure that none of the team members have any doubt about the deliverables” is a broader outcome of continuous communication in Agile, not the singular most important characteristic of an effective stand-up.
• Option C is incorrect. The duration of a daily stand-up meeting varies depending on the specific Agile methodology being employed (e.g., 15 minutes for Scrum, 5 minutes for XP). The question uses the term “daily stand up,” which might imply XP, making “15 minutes” an uncertain duration. More importantly, the rigid statement “no one can leave the meeting until the discussion is over” undermines the timebox principle and the self-organizing nature of Agile teams.
• Option D is correct. The daily stand-up meeting’s effectiveness hinges on its dual nature: it must be short to be efficient and respectful of time, and it must be well-structured to ensure that team members are focused on providing relevant updates by addressing the three key questions. This combination is the most critical element for a productive daily stand-up meeting.

Question 9: Documentation Philosophy in Agile Projects

Harold, a stakeholder in Company A, has recently been apprised that the team will adopt an Agile framework for the current project. During a planning meeting, Harold informs the team members that they will no longer be producing formal documentation in this project, contrary to their practices in previous projects. How should the team members respond to his statement?

1. “There is no documentation in Agile projects; our focus is solely on value-added delivery.” B. “In Agile methodology, documentation is kept barely sufficient to fulfill regulatory and essential requirements.” C. “In Agile, documentation is only created for clearly defined work items.” D. “Documentation is not created in Agile methodology, but we will provide as much documentation as possible to make you comfortable with Agile.”

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: The Agile Manifesto’s second value states, “Working software over comprehensive documentation.” This principle suggests that while working software is prioritized, it does not imply an absolute absence of documentation. In Agile, the creation of excessive formal documentation with overly detailed descriptions is often considered a waste of time and effort. However, this does not mean that documentation is entirely unnecessary. On the contrary, documentation is vital, but it should be maintained at a level that is barely sufficient to satisfy regulatory mandates, essential communication needs, and practical requirements within an Agile environment. For certain contexts, such as safety-critical products or highly regulated industries, some additional documentation and conformance checks are indeed recommended and necessary.

• Option A is incorrect. The statement “There is no documentation in Agile projects” is a common misconception and fundamentally inaccurate. While value-based delivery is a cornerstone of Agile, it must be supported by adequate documentation to meet regulatory needs, facilitate understanding, and ensure long-term maintainability.
• Option B is correct. This statement accurately reflects the Agile philosophy towards documentation. In Agile, documentation is minimized to what is truly essential—just enough to fulfill regulatory requirements, capture critical design decisions, or support ongoing operations—without becoming an impediment to delivering working software. Only the necessary time and effort should be allocated to documentation creation, avoiding both extremes of too little or too much.
• Option C is incorrect. The assertion that “In Agile, the documentation is done for the clear work items only” is not a principle of Agile documentation. Documentation in Agile is driven by various factors, including regulatory needs, knowledge transfer, and supporting the team and customer, not solely by the clarity of work items.
• Option D is incorrect. The first part of the statement, “Documentation is not created in Agile methodology,” is untrue. While Agile de-emphasizes comprehensive documentation, it certainly does not eliminate it. The latter part of the statement, while seemingly accommodating, perpetuates the misconception of no documentation and suggests an ad-hoc approach rather than a principled one.

Question 10: Scrum Master’s Conflict Resolution in Distributed Teams

Gerard, a Scrum Master, is managing a Scrum team engaged in the development of a customer production system. The team members are geographically distributed across the globe. During an iteration, the team identified a critical defect and decided to discuss troubleshooting steps via video conference. However, the discussion rapidly degenerated into an argument, with team members beginning to blame each other for the defect. How would Gerard handle this situation as a Scrum Master?

1. Request the team members to physically gather on-site to resolve such critical defects. B. Instruct the team to discuss and collaboratively resolve the issue in a professional manner. C. Advise the team to take a break and recommence the discussion after some time. D. Await the retrospective meeting to review the outcome of the team discussion with the team.

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: A Scrum Master functions primarily as a facilitator for their team. It is their inherent responsibility to foster and promote effective communication and collaboration both within the team and among interdependent teams. The Scrum Master is expected to leverage their management and collaboration skills to extract the best contributions from each team member. In instances of conflicts or bottlenecks, it is the explicit duty of the Scrum Master to actively encourage constructive collaboration among team members. In the described scenario, where a critical defect has led to a heated argument and blame, the Scrum Master should intervene by guiding the team members to discuss their individual perspectives in a collaborative and professional manner. The Scrum Master should emphasize the detrimental impact of internal conflicts on team cohesion and performance, encouraging the team to view differing viewpoints as alternative options and to collectively strive for a professional resolution. Ultimately, effective collaboration is the key to resolving such conflicts and achieving the desired technical outcomes.

• Option A is incorrect. Requesting globally distributed team members to gather on-site to resolve a critical defect, while potentially offering some benefits, is generally not the most practical or efficient immediate solution. Such a directive would likely incur significant time delays and travel expenses that could be better spent on resolving the defect remotely.
• Option B is correct. It is a core duty of the Scrum Master to promote collaboration within the team. Directing the team to discuss and collaboratively resolve the issue professionally is the most appropriate and effective intervention in this situation, as it empowers the team to self-organize while providing the necessary guidance for conflict resolution.
• Option C is incorrect. While taking a break might temporarily de-escalate a heated argument, it does not fundamentally address the underlying conflict or facilitate a resolution. In a situation involving a critical defect in a production system, a proactive and immediate resolution is needed, not just a pause. The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate the discussion, not just to defer it.
• Option D is incorrect. In less urgent situations, waiting for the retrospective meeting to review team discussions might be a viable approach for continuous improvement. However, in the current scenario, a critical defect has been discovered in a customer production system. This situation demands an urgent and immediate resolution. Deferring the discussion to a retrospective meeting would be irresponsible and could lead to prolonged downtime or customer dissatisfaction.

Question 11: Retrospective Data Gathering Techniques

An Agile team employs a specific data gathering facilitation technique during an iteration retrospective to compile information. The team subsequently constructs a graph to present a visual representation of their collective satisfaction status within a particular area. Choose the correct name for this technique.

1. Team Radar B. Satisfaction Histogram C. Color Code Dots D. Triple Nickels

Answer: Choice B is the correct answer.

Explanation: The technique described is the Satisfaction Histogram. A Satisfaction Histogram is a data gathering technique precisely designed to gauge the satisfaction level of individuals or a group (like a team) in relation to a specific area, process, or activity. In this technique, a visual graph is created to offer a clear picture of the team’s satisfaction status. This visual representation is invaluable for fostering deeper discussions and analysis during retrospective meetings, helping the team identify areas of contentment and areas requiring improvement. It is frequently utilized during iteration retrospectives to gather subjective feedback effectively.

• Option A is incorrect. Team Radar is also a data gathering technique, but its primary purpose is generally to evaluate a team’s overall performance across various dimensions such as culture, values, and development practices, rather than specifically measuring satisfaction in a particular area.
• Option B is correct. The Satisfaction Histogram is a technique in which a team generates a graph to visually depict their collective satisfaction level within a defined area. This perfectly matches the scenario provided.
• Option C is incorrect. Color Code Dots is a technique predominantly used for gathering data related to emotions or feelings, often to identify where sentiments ran high or low during an iteration retrospective, project retrospective, or release. While it uses dots, its purpose is distinct from measuring satisfaction levels in a specific area.
• Option D is incorrect. Triple Nickels is a brainstorming approach, typically used for generating a multitude of ideas for potential actions or recommendations within a short, time-boxed session. It is an idea generation technique, not primarily a satisfaction measurement tool.