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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 24

Question 230

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A server room uses a fire suppression system that protects equipment but has no occupancy safety or power shutdown procedures. The approved response was: Design fire detection and suppression with life safety, building code and protected equipment considerations. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Suppressant compatibility with energized equipment and room integrity must be validated.
  2. A fire suppressant approved for electronics is necessarily harmless to occupants in every concentration.
  3. Fire suppression installation automatically proves safe electrical shutdown and evacuation sequencing.
  4. Protecting racks from water is sufficient even when the chosen chemical suppressant creates an unacceptable personnel hazard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

People safety takes priority while suitable suppression limits facility damage. A supervised exercise verifies alarm, occupant evacuation, power isolation and suppression sequence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Human exposure and local building code must be evaluated separately.

C:

Systems need integrated procedures, inspection and drills.

D:

Equipment preservation must remain subordinate to life safety.

Question 231

Management implemented a response after this event: A server room uses a fire suppression system that protects equipment but has no occupancy safety or power shutdown procedures. The response was: Design fire detection and suppression with life safety, building code and protected equipment considerations. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A system passes a vendor compatibility certificate but a drill cannot evacuate staff before discharge.
  2. A supervised exercise verifies alarm, occupant evacuation, power isolation and suppression sequence.
  3. Smoke sensors alarm correctly, but no authorized team can demonstrate safe power isolation and suppression sequence.
  4. The fire plan states people first while an emergency exit remains obstructed by secure storage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A supervised exercise verifies alarm, occupant evacuation, power isolation and suppression sequence. People safety takes priority while suitable suppression limits facility damage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Equipment safety is not a substitute for verified occupant protection.

C:

Alarm activation alone does not establish complete fire response.

D:

Written priorities do not prove executable life-safety controls.

Question 232

A customer portal is retired, but DNS, OAuth clients and service credentials remain active months afterward. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Turn off the public web interface but leave the OAuth client and service account authorized indefinitely.
  2. Delete the application database without checking legal record retention or replacement services.
  3. Execute controlled system retirement with dependency migration, credential revocation and recoverable record preservation.
  4. Change the DNS hostname to a deprecated label while maintaining active old API tokens and routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

End-of-life security includes removing access paths and meeting retention obligations. Some operational logs may need protected retention after user-facing service shutdown.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Accessible credentials and callback endpoints can survive retirement and create orphan attack paths.

B:

Premature destruction may violate preservation and break required dependent workflows.

D:

Renaming a service does not revoke its effective access paths.

Question 233

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A customer portal is retired, but DNS, OAuth clients and service credentials remain active months afterward. The approved response was: Execute controlled system retirement with dependency migration, credential revocation and recoverable record preservation. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A retired service has no remaining obligations once the user-facing page returns 404.
  2. Deleting all historical records is mandatory whenever a service is shut down.
  3. Some operational logs may need protected retention after user-facing service shutdown.
  4. Removing one DNS record automatically invalidates every token and backend session previously issued.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

End-of-life security includes removing access paths and meeting retention obligations. Negative authentication and DNS tests show retired access paths fail while required records restore.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Credentials, archival logs and dependent applications can remain active and require lifecycle treatment.

B:

Legal and operational retention may require controlled preservation after retirement.

D:

Identity credentials and alternate routes can persist independently of DNS.

Question 234

Management implemented a response after this event: A customer portal is retired, but DNS, OAuth clients and service credentials remain active months afterward. The response was: Execute controlled system retirement with dependency migration, credential revocation and recoverable record preservation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The product website is unavailable, but previously issued OAuth credentials still call its protected API.
  2. Old log archives were erased without a retention inventory, though user traffic no longer reaches the domain.
  3. Only the primary hostname fails; legacy service tokens and alternative endpoints remain live.
  4. Negative authentication and DNS tests show retired access paths fail while required records restore.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Negative authentication and DNS tests show retired access paths fail while required records restore. End-of-life security includes removing access paths and meeting retention obligations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A closed UI does not prove access credentials and backend routes are retired.

B:

Service inaccessibility cannot justify destroying required preserved evidence.

C:

Single-path DNS checks do not prove comprehensive decommissioning.

Question 235

An architect assumes an HTTPS forward proxy can inspect an encrypted proprietary UDP stream. What should be done before selecting the inspection control?

  1. Send all UDP traffic through port 443 and assume it becomes HTTP.
  2. Identify actual protocols, trust boundaries and payload visibility; choose enforcement appropriate to each traffic class.
  3. Disable TLS everywhere to let the HTTPS proxy see payload bytes.
  4. Assume every layer-3 firewall can validate application content.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An HTTP application proxy does not automatically parse arbitrary UDP protocols or decrypt their payloads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Port numbers do not determine protocol semantics or plaintext visibility.

C:

Global decryption creates unacceptable confidentiality exposure and still may not add UDP parser support.

D:

Packet filtering and application-level validation have different capabilities.

Question 236

A security team successfully deploys an HTTP proxy on a web subnet. What important blind spot can remain?

  1. The proxy may legitimately inspect regular HTTP methods it was built to parse.
  2. TLS certificates prove the proxy understands arbitrary compressed application formats.
  3. Non-HTTP transports and encrypted payloads on separate paths can bypass that proxy's application inspection.
  4. Increasing proxy RAM automatically creates support for an unknown UDP protocol.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protocol and routing coverage must be established independently of the proxy's deployment status.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supported HTTP processing is a capability, not the unresolved blind spot.

B:

A certificate establishes channel identity, not parser completeness.

D:

Capacity upgrades do not implement protocol decoding or authorization policy.

Question 237

What validation BEST demonstrates correct protocol-to-control mapping?

  1. Check that the HTTPS proxy process is running.
  2. Replay supported HTTP and unsupported UDP flows and verify each is inspected or blocked by the appropriate configured control.
  3. Count total packets forwarded without labeling protocol and encryption.
  4. Verify only browser login traffic is inspected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Positive and negative protocol tests establish coverage and safe handling of uninspectable traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A healthy process does not prove coverage of non-HTTP or bypass paths.

C:

Aggregate throughput cannot prove application-level inspection.

D:

Browser traffic alone omits the high-risk proprietary UDP path.

Question 238

A payroll portal terminates TLS at a public load balancer and forwards session tokens in plaintext across a separately administered, untrusted backend network. Which change BEST secures that trust boundary?

  1. Encrypt and authenticate the load balancer–backend connection as well, using validated TLS identities and least-privilege network access.
  2. Keep the backend plaintext because the browser displays a valid HTTPS padlock.
  3. Add an extra public TLS certificate to the browser but do not enable TLS on the backend hop.
  4. Allow all private hosts to connect to the payroll backend and rely on obscured server names.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Confidentiality on the browser-to-edge hop ends at TLS termination; another untrusted link requires its own authenticated transport protection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The padlock protects the browser-edge connection, not subsequent forwarding from the edge to application servers.

C:

More front-end certificates cannot protect plaintext traveling across a separate untrusted internal segment.

D:

Unrestricted backend access and name obscurity do not provide encryption or peer identity assurance.

Question 239

A payroll team enables TLS between its load balancer and application servers. Which remaining implementation requirement is essential to avoid a false sense of backend security?

  1. Validate the backend certificate’s trust chain, identity and required client authentication, not merely that a TLS socket negotiated.
  2. Disable hostname and chain validation whenever the handshake negotiates a modern cipher.
  3. Treat a self-signed unknown certificate as automatically trusted because the server address is private.
  4. Continue forwarding backend data in plaintext whenever the edge certificate is still valid.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Encryption to the wrong endpoint can still disclose sensitive content. Certificate and peer validation give meaning to the established protected channel.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Cipher negotiation does not demonstrate that the intended backend endpoint was authenticated.

C:

Private network location is not proof of peer identity or a trusted certificate chain.

D:

Front-end TLS status does not relieve the requirement to secure the separate untrusted backend hop.

Question 240

A vendor claims payroll sessions remain protected through both the public edge and the internal application hop. Which evidence BEST validates the claim?

  1. The user browser shows HTTPS, but captures between the load balancer and app contain readable session cookies.
  2. Only the firewall’s packet count rises during a test; no TLS identity or plaintext check is done.
  3. The application responds HTTP 200 through the edge even when its backend certificate is untrusted.
  4. Backend packet captures show protected content and successful mutual/required peer-identity validation; a forged backend endpoint is rejected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Capture plus a negative impostor test verifies both confidentiality in transit and authentication at the second network boundary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The public padlock covers only the first hop; readable backend tokens show a continuing exposure.

B:

Traffic counters do not establish channel confidentiality or endpoint identity.

C:

Application success without peer validation can conceal an active man-in-the-middle risk.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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