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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 30

Question 290

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Operations receives sampled firewall counters but cannot correlate which lateral path carried a suspected data leak. The approved response was: Collect scoped network-flow metadata with synchronized timestamps, secure retention and identity context. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Encrypted traffic metadata may be sensitive; access and retention must be governed.
  2. Network-flow telemetry may be retained and broadly shared without privacy restrictions because it contains no decrypted payload.
  3. An aggregate firewall rule hit count uniquely identifies which workstation sent data to which destination.
  4. Synchronized timestamps automatically prove that each recorded user identity was uncompromised.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Flow telemetry can establish communication patterns even without storing packet contents. A test exfiltration flow is attributable to source, destination, time and applied policy decision.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Metadata can still expose sensitive activity and needs access and retention governance.

C:

Total counters do not preserve the flow-level endpoints or timeline.

D:

Time alignment supports correlation, not authentication of every claimed actor.

Question 291

Management implemented a response after this event: Operations receives sampled firewall counters but cannot correlate which lateral path carried a suspected data leak. The response was: Collect scoped network-flow metadata with synchronized timestamps, secure retention and identity context. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A traffic chart shows total byte growth but cannot attribute the tested transfer to a host or destination.
  2. A test exfiltration flow is attributable to source, destination, time and applied policy decision.
  3. The flow collector has logs, but clock drift prevents correlating source and destination events.
  4. Packet captures exist but are accessible by everyone and stored indefinitely without policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A test exfiltration flow is attributable to source, destination, time and applied policy decision. Flow telemetry can establish communication patterns even without storing packet contents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Volume alone is not incident-ready flow attribution.

C:

Unsynchronized telemetry cannot reliably reconstruct the causal path.

D:

Uncontrolled sensitive metadata cannot demonstrate governed investigative observability.

Question 292

Any unmanaged laptop plugged into an unused office network port receives production VLAN access. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Require port-based network access control with device/user authentication and safe fallback segments.
  2. Rely on office door locks to authorize every laptop connected to an unattended Ethernet port.
  3. Keep ports enabled with unrestricted production VLAN membership and scan unknown devices only monthly.
  4. Place an unrestricted guest welcome page on the network without an actual port-based authorization decision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Physical cabling access is not authorization to enter the corporate data network. Quarantine segments must not accidentally bridge into management networks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Physical proximity is not identity and device-based network admission.

C:

Post-admission inspection does not prevent immediate access from an unmanaged endpoint.

D:

A captive portal alone cannot govern layer 2 production connectivity.

Question 293

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Any unmanaged laptop plugged into an unused office network port receives production VLAN access. The approved response was: Require port-based network access control with device/user authentication and safe fallback segments. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A quarantine VLAN is safe by definition even if its ACL permits management-network access.
  2. Being physically present in an office proves authorization to use privileged production networks.
  3. Quarantine segments must not accidentally bridge into management networks.
  4. 802.1X admission always removes the need for endpoint posture or subsequent resource authorization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Physical cabling access is not authorization to enter the corporate data network. An unknown laptop is placed into a restricted segment while enrolled endpoints reach approved services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fallback segmentation needs explicit deny rules and reachability tests.

B:

Local building access is not equivalent to device and user network permission.

D:

Port authentication does not make an endpoint trustworthy for every protected application.

Question 294

Management implemented a response after this event: Any unmanaged laptop plugged into an unused office network port receives production VLAN access. The response was: Require port-based network access control with device/user authentication and safe fallback segments. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. An unknown laptop is placed into a restricted segment while enrolled endpoints reach approved services.
  2. An unknown laptop receives a production IP address immediately when plugged into an unused port.
  3. An NAC configuration exists but a quarantined host can route to the management subnet.
  4. Known employee laptops pass authentication while no unauthorized-device tests are conducted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An unknown laptop is placed into a restricted segment while enrolled endpoints reach approved services. Physical cabling access is not authorization to enter the corporate data network.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Physical connectivity without a controlled enrollment path is not secure network admission.

C:

Configured quarantine is insufficient when forwarding policy reconnects protected networks.

D:

Positive access does not establish the negative admission boundary.

Question 295

A laptop has current patches but malicious macros are spawning unusual processes and connecting outbound. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Assume current operating-system patches make all macro-driven process abuse impossible.
  2. Deploy only file-name blacklist rules while ignoring suspicious process trees and outbound activity.
  3. Increase backup capacity instead of collecting and responding to endpoint process and network signals.
  4. Deploy and tune endpoint behavior detection with containment and escalation response.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Patch compliance reduces known vulnerabilities but does not establish that endpoint behavior is benign. EDR alerts need false-positive handling and tested containment authority.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Patching known flaws does not prevent malicious behavior using legitimate execution tools.

B:

Behavioral attacks may use new or legitimate tools not covered by filename signatures.

C:

Backup readiness cannot detect and contain live malicious endpoint execution.

Question 296

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A laptop has current patches but malicious macros are spawning unusual processes and connecting outbound. The approved response was: Deploy and tune endpoint behavior detection with containment and escalation response. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An EDR alert is always malicious and should delete every implicated process without verification.
  2. Patch compliance proves an endpoint cannot be compromised through malicious documents.
  3. EDR alerts need false-positive handling and tested containment authority.
  4. An antivirus clean scan guarantees there is no ongoing credential theft or suspicious egress.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Patch compliance reduces known vulnerabilities but does not establish that endpoint behavior is benign. A simulated suspicious process generates a correlated alert and controlled host containment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Detections can be false positives and require controlled response authority.

B:

Known-vulnerability maintenance does not eliminate social engineering and payload abuse.

D:

Some behavior-based threats can evade static malware signatures.

Question 297

Management implemented a response after this event: A laptop has current patches but malicious macros are spawning unusual processes and connecting outbound. The response was: Deploy and tune endpoint behavior detection with containment and escalation response. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The patch dashboard is green, but a simulated malicious macro spawns processes with no alert.
  2. The EDR agent is installed, yet a controlled suspicious child process does not trigger investigation or containment.
  3. A simulated suspicious process generates a correlated alert and controlled host containment.
  4. An endpoint can still export confidential files after a mock alert with no controlled isolation option.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A simulated suspicious process generates a correlated alert and controlled host containment. Patch compliance reduces known vulnerabilities but does not establish that endpoint behavior is benign.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OS patch status is not proof of EDR behavioral coverage.

B:

Agent presence cannot establish useful detection and response.

D:

An alert alone is insufficient to demonstrate a responsive containment workflow.

Question 298

The core network has two routers but both draw power from the same failing distribution unit. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Add a third router to the same failing power distribution unit and claim three-way redundancy.
  2. Remove shared power and control-plane single points of failure before claiming resilient routing.
  3. Upgrade routing software without separating the routers’ electrical feed.
  4. Change interface metrics to prefer the standby router that still uses the same power source.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Duplicate devices do not provide redundancy when they share a critical dependency. Redundant routing protocols must also be tested for convergence under an isolated fault.

Incorrect Answers

A:

More devices sharing one critical dependency remain subject to common-mode failure.

C:

Protocol improvement cannot preserve operation when all routers lose power together.

D:

Preference changes do not remove correlated failure of the physical dependency.

Question 299

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: The core network has two routers but both draw power from the same failing distribution unit. The approved response was: Remove shared power and control-plane single points of failure before claiming resilient routing. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Two routers are inherently redundant regardless of shared power and control infrastructure.
  2. A physically separate router always maintains connectivity even if its routing convergence has never been tested.
  3. High-speed failover protocols can keep routes active without any electrical power to the devices.
  4. Redundant routing protocols must also be tested for convergence under an isolated fault.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Duplicate devices do not provide redundancy when they share a critical dependency. A power-feed loss leaves one routing path operational without unauthorized bypass.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single common power failure can disable both at once.

B:

Redundancy requires functional failover and stable route recovery.

C:

Control protocols cannot function when the shared power feed fails.

Question 300

Management implemented a response after this event: The core network has two routers but both draw power from the same failing distribution unit. The response was: Remove shared power and control-plane single points of failure before claiming resilient routing. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The inventory lists two routers, but a simulated power-unit outage takes both offline.
  2. Both routers have different hostnames but depend on the same UPS output with no isolation test.
  3. Routing neighbors are stable during normal operation, but no single-feed fault exercise exists.
  4. A power-feed loss leaves one routing path operational without unauthorized bypass.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A power-feed loss leaves one routing path operational without unauthorized bypass. Duplicate devices do not provide redundancy when they share a critical dependency.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device count is not common-mode failure resistance.

B:

Naming diversity cannot establish electrical independence.

C:

A steady routing table does not demonstrate failover readiness.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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