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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 35

Question 340

A SaaS application accepts a correctly signed SAML assertion issued for another application. Which validation is essential?

  1. Validate signature, trusted issuer, intended audience/recipient, time conditions and transaction correlation for this relying party.
  2. Check only that the assertion has a nonempty username.
  3. Accept assertions addressed to any service managed by the same identity provider.
  4. Skip expiration checks if TLS protected the browser redirect.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A signed assertion is not safe to replay at a different service unless its relying-party binding is validated.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A user label cannot establish issuer trust or destination binding.

C:

Trust in an IdP does not make all its assertions valid for every audience.

D:

Transport protection does not override the assertion's own validity bounds.

Question 341

The SP validates issuer and signature but omits assertion replay protection. What residual attack is plausible?

  1. An encrypted TLS session makes captured SAML bearer assertions permanently unusable.
  2. A trusted IdP always guarantees all relying-party session lifetimes are correct.
  3. A captured still-valid bearer assertion could be injected again unless transaction and assertion constraints are enforced.
  4. The assertion's subject name removes the need to validate any authentication event.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cryptographic authenticity alone is not the same as freshness and session binding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assertion replay risk depends on presentation, identifier and session checks, not TLS alone.

B:

The relying party must enforce its own session and assertion conditions.

D:

Identity strings do not prove a fresh authorized federated transaction.

Question 342

What negative test BEST proves correct SAML relying-party binding?

  1. Log into app B with a normal valid token only.
  2. Check whether app B displays the IdP's logo.
  3. Change the issuer display name without examining signature or audience checks.
  4. Present an otherwise valid signed assertion for application A to application B and confirm B rejects it while accepting its own valid assertion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test isolates audience binding despite a trusted issuer and valid signature.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A positive test cannot reveal acceptance of cross-audience assertions.

B:

Visual branding is not protocol validation.

C:

Display metadata does not test cross-service assertion use.

Question 343

A payment API accepts any correctly signed OpenID Connect ID token as authorization to transfer funds. The ID token was issued to a browser client, not the API. What change BEST closes this token-confusion flaw?

  1. Require a resource-server access token intended for the API, validate issuer, audience, lifetime and relevant scopes, and enforce transaction-specific authorization.
  2. Accept every signed ID token as an access token so long as the user has completed MFA.
  3. Disable audience validation because the issuer is trusted by other applications.
  4. Store the same ID token in a secure cookie and skip per-transfer authorization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An OIDC ID token asserts identity to the client; it is not a generic delegated API authorization credential. The resource server must check the intended access-token profile and permissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authentication strength and token signature do not establish that the token was issued for this API or grants funds-transfer scope.

C:

A trusted issuer can mint tokens for several audiences; ignoring audience allows token substitution between clients and resources.

D:

Cookie protection does not transform an identity assertion into scoped API permission or verify transaction ownership.

Question 344

A payment API now requires valid scoped access tokens instead of OIDC ID tokens. Which further control is appropriate when privileged access must be revoked promptly?

  1. Assume JWT signatures ensure tokens become invalid instantly whenever a user changes a password.
  2. Design token lifetime, revocation or introspection and session termination in accordance with credential type, issuer and transfer risk.
  3. Remove all audience and issuer checks to make revoked user sessions easier to recover.
  4. Accept expired access tokens if the payment account is in good standing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Short-lived tokens and supported revocation/introspection reduce exposure after compromise. Merely checking signature and scopes does not invalidate every unexpired stolen credential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A previously issued self-contained access token may remain cryptographically valid until expiry unless the issuer/resource server enforces additional revocation.

C:

Bypassing validation increases token substitution and impersonation risk, not revocation assurance.

D:

Token expiration is a security boundary and should not be overridden by a business balance check.

Question 345

A resource server claims it no longer confuses identity and access tokens. Which authentication/authorization test is MOST decisive?

  1. Any token signed by the identity provider can complete the payment without audience or scope checks.
  2. A test browser logs in successfully, but no payment resource-server call is exercised.
  3. An expired access token is accepted because the database session still exists.
  4. A valid browser ID token is denied for a payment API call, while an API-audience access token with the required scope and transaction entitlement is accepted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Negative wrong-token and positive correct-token tests prove both intended-token audience validation and authorization beyond signature verification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That result demonstrates the original substitution vulnerability remains.

B:

OIDC login verifies client authentication, not protection of the API’s token boundary.

C:

Accepting expired credentials undermines token lifetime enforcement and does not prove correct issuer/audience handling.

Question 346

An employee is disabled at the corporate identity provider but continues using a SaaS app for weeks under an existing session. Which improvement addresses the gap?

  1. Disable SSO login only and assume current application cookies vanish.
  2. Increase session lifetimes so users do not notice identity changes.
  3. Coordinate RP session expiration, token/session revocation and provisioning deactivation with bounded propagation.
  4. Treat SCIM provisioning as identical to an OAuth browser login.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IdP disablement may not terminate a separately issued SaaS session; lifecycle controls must reach the relying party.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Pre-existing sessions can persist after the next SSO authentication is blocked.

B:

Longer sessions extend the revocation exposure window.

D:

Provisioning and authentication are distinct protocols and lifecycles.

Question 347

The SaaS receives a SCIM deactivation event. Which residual risk still needs assessment?

  1. A deleted directory profile guarantees every browser and API credential is unusable.
  2. Independently minted sessions and API tokens may remain usable unless the service explicitly revokes or bounds them.
  3. The IdP's TLS certificate rotation alone revokes all SaaS access.
  4. Every SaaS product must exclusively support on-premises password validation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Deprovisioning events do not always invalidate every bearer credential in every subsystem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Local application sessions can outlive remote directory state.

C:

Transport certificate maintenance is unrelated to individual session lifecycle.

D:

Federation is legitimate; its revocation and session bounds need correct implementation.

Question 348

Which test BEST demonstrates federated account termination?

  1. Disable a test user, then attempt new SSO, existing browser session and API-token operations across the approved time bound.
  2. Verify the corporate IdP shows a red 'disabled' icon.
  3. Confirm that the SaaS can accept a new account signup.
  4. Check only that a user must reenter a password after a year.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Covers separate login, session and token paths that otherwise escape deprovisioning.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Directory state alone says nothing about active SaaS cookies or tokens.

C:

Account creation does not test account termination.

D:

An annual login test misses the immediate offboarding requirement.

Question 349

An enterprise creates one custom role per employee and can no longer audit which privileges are sensitive. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Create a separate permanent custom role for every employee without defining shared business duties.
  2. Assign an administrator role to all staff and rely on manager familiarity to deter misuse.
  3. Use role names as the sole security measure without examining the permission combinations they grant.
  4. Normalize business roles with periodic review and separations, reserving exceptions for specific needs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

RBAC is easier to govern when roles correspond to stable job functions. Roles can still contain toxic permission combinations and need conflict analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Role explosion makes sensitive permission review and conflict detection harder.

B:

Broad entitlements defeat least privilege and auditable business role boundaries.

C:

Nominal roles do not prevent toxic access conflicts or overbroad authorization.

Question 350

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An enterprise creates one custom role per employee and can no longer audit which privileges are sensitive. The approved response was: Normalize business roles with periodic review and separations, reserving exceptions for specific needs. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Grouping staff by role guarantees no conflicting privileges can coexist within or across roles.
  2. An employee-specific role is automatically easier to certify than standardized business functions.
  3. Roles can still contain toxic permission combinations and need conflict analysis.
  4. An approved role name proves its permissions remain appropriate after the employee transfers departments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

RBAC is easier to govern when roles correspond to stable job functions. Comparable staff share reviewed role baselines and prohibited role combinations are blocked.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Role design still needs separation-of-duties and toxic-combination checks.

B:

Large numbers of unique roles may obscure equivalence and review ownership.

D:

Role-to-job alignment changes and requires lifecycle reassessment.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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