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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 33

Question 320

A bank adds stronger document and identity checks for privileged remote enrollment. Which second security boundary still requires independent controls?

  1. After identity proofing, any newly submitted authenticator should be trusted without a binding ceremony.
  2. A verified legal name automatically grants the person permission to approve financial transfers.
  3. Secure authenticator binding, recovery and account-privilege authorization after identity has been proofed.
  4. Lost authenticator recovery may use publicly known personal facts without reassessing proofing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Knowing that the applicant is a particular person does not automatically prove control of the intended authenticator or entitlement to perform a privileged transaction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthorized authenticator enrollment can hijack an otherwise properly proofed identity.

B:

Identity proofing and authorization are separate decisions; job/transaction entitlements still need approval.

D:

Weak recovery can undermine the trust established during original onboarding.

Question 321

A remote enrollment program claims privileged users are identity-proofed rather than merely email-verified. Which test BEST substantiates that claim?

  1. Both a valid applicant and an impostor can enroll by clicking the same emailed link.
  2. A login dashboard shows no password failures after the new users enroll.
  3. An impostor who controls a disposable inbox but lacks the required identity evidence is denied privileged enrollment; a legitimate verified applicant enrolls using an approved authenticator.
  4. The help desk confirms every submitted email address is syntactically valid.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A negative fraudulent enrollment plus valid positive case shows identity proofing and authenticator binding are distinct and effective.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Mailbox control alone is the exact weak assurance the updated process was intended to remove.

B:

Post-enrollment login success cannot establish the identity of the person who enrolled.

D:

String-format validation has no relationship to proving an asserted real-world identity.

Question 322

Attackers trick employees into approving repeated push MFA requests and relay credentials through an adversary-controlled lookalike website. Which authentication change most directly resists this attack path?

  1. Use phishing-resistant, origin-bound authenticators such as properly configured FIDO2/WebAuthn, with secure enrollment and recovery.
  2. Increase the number of push prompts sent until the user chooses Allow.
  3. Require a password change every seven days while retaining the same push-only second factor.
  4. Display the company logo on the login page and rely on employees to spot imitations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An origin-bound authenticator will not create a valid assertion for the genuine service when used on an attacker origin. Number matching improves some push flows but is not equivalent to cryptographic phishing resistance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

More notifications intensify push fatigue and do not bind authentication to the genuine service origin.

C:

Password rotation alone does not prevent adversary-in-the-middle credential capture or induced push approval.

D:

Visual branding can be copied by phishers and does not cryptographically bind a login to its legitimate origin.

Question 323

A company has rolled out phishing-resistant authenticators for employees. What residual pathway MUST receive equivalent assurance so attackers cannot bypass the new sign-in method?

  1. Treat a caller who knows an employee’s birth date as fully verified for privileged authenticator reset.
  2. Account recovery and authenticator replacement workflows, including help-desk identity verification and rebind authorization.
  3. Keep the old push factor as an unrestricted bypass whenever a user reports a lost security key.
  4. Let help-desk agents silently enroll new authenticators without an audit or notification trail.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A phishing-resistant primary login can be undermined by weaker recovery, rebinding or fallback factors. The assurance chain includes registration and loss handling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Publicly discoverable knowledge is inadequate proof of identity for high-assurance recovery.

C:

An unrestricted weaker fallback reintroduces the exact push-fatigue compromise path the stronger factor was meant to close.

D:

Unreviewed rebinding enables social-engineered account takeover even though the normal login is phishing resistant.

Question 324

After deploying FIDO2/WebAuthn for privileged employees, which security exercise BEST demonstrates resistance to a credential-relay phishing site?

  1. A simulated phish asks for a password only and does not invoke the configured authenticator.
  2. A user approves an unsolicited push notification on a copied website and both sessions succeed.
  3. The rollout dashboard shows 100% registered devices but no challenge against a false origin has been tried.
  4. A user is sent to a lookalike origin; the authenticator cannot produce a valid response for the genuine relying party, while a correct-origin login succeeds.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

WebAuthn signatures are scoped to relying-party identity/origin, providing direct evidence of phishing resistance when validated by the server.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This fails to test the origin-bound cryptographic authentication step at risk.

B:

Successful attacker-site relay indicates the old weak path remains usable; it is not evidence of resistance.

C:

Registration coverage is deployment evidence, not a test that phishing-origin assertions are rejected.

Question 325

Several administrators share a root password in a team chat. What control most directly improves secret custody and individual accountability?

  1. Pin the current password message so everyone can find it faster.
  2. Move the credential to an access-controlled vault with individual checkout, rotation, approval and monitored privileged sessions.
  3. Change the chat channel name to 'confidential'.
  4. Tell administrators to use personal accounts but keep the shared root password unchanged in chat.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Central custody and traceable individual use reduce uncontrolled copies and shared-account ambiguity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Easier sharing increases persistent exposure and weakens access attribution.

C:

A label does not enforce password custody, rotation or command accountability.

D:

Unmanaged shared credentials remain an effective bypass of identity-level controls.

Question 326

The root credential now requires approved vault checkout. What risk still requires investigation?

  1. A vault makes privileged-session misuse physically impossible.
  2. The password's length always eliminates the need for checkout records.
  3. After checkout, users may share the revealed password or perform commands that a checkout log cannot individually attribute.
  4. Secret rotation is always prohibited for shared emergency accounts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Session recording, rotation, role separation and monitoring supplement custody controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Vault enforcement limits credential exposure, not every authorized activity after disclosure.

B:

Entropy and individual attribution address different properties.

D:

Rotation is normally beneficial when governed for dependent systems and recovery.

Question 327

Which demonstration BEST validates a shared-secret vault migration?

  1. Show individually approved checkout, recorded privileged actions, immediate rotation and failure of the former chat-exposed password.
  2. Confirm the vendor invoice lists vault licenses.
  3. Verify the vault website displays a password field.
  4. Ask administrators to sign a new poster saying 'do not share'.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This checks credential revocation and accountable use instead of merely purchasing a vault.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Billing evidence cannot prove old credentials are revoked or sessions attributable.

C:

A working interface does not prove approval, rotation or session capture.

D:

Awareness cannot substitute for enforceable secret custody and revocation.

Question 328

An application keeps the same unauthenticated session identifier after a user signs in with MFA. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Retain the same pre-login session identifier after MFA and assume authentication makes it safe.
  2. Rotate session identifiers on authentication and privilege transitions with secure cookie controls.
  3. Increase password length while allowing preauthenticated cookies to become privileged unchanged.
  4. Hide the session cookie from the UI but do not rotate it when roles change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Keeping an attacker-known pre-login ID allows session fixation despite successful MFA. Session token theft after login remains a separate risk requiring secure transport and expiry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An attacker who fixed or learned the old ID may inherit the authenticated session.

C:

Credential quality does not fix a session identifier known before authentication.

D:

Obscuring tokens does not remove fixation across privilege transitions.

Question 329

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An application keeps the same unauthenticated session identifier after a user signs in with MFA. The approved response was: Rotate session identifiers on authentication and privilege transitions with secure cookie controls. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Rotating IDs at login also prevents every later theft of an active session cookie.
  2. Session token theft after login remains a separate risk requiring secure transport and expiry.
  3. Using MFA automatically invalidates any session identifier already known to an attacker.
  4. A secure cookie name is enough to stop fixation even if its value persists across login.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Keeping an attacker-known pre-login ID allows session fixation despite successful MFA. A pre-login token becomes invalid after sign-in and no longer grants the authenticated session.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Post-login token compromise remains a separate transport and expiry risk.

C:

MFA proves authentication, but the application must explicitly rekey its session.

D:

Cookie naming does not invalidate a pre-set authenticated session identifier.

Question 330

Management implemented a response after this event: An application keeps the same unauthenticated session identifier after a user signs in with MFA. The response was: Rotate session identifiers on authentication and privilege transitions with secure cookie controls. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A pre-login cookie still authorizes account actions after the victim completes MFA using the same ID.
  2. The MFA challenge succeeds, but a previously copied anonymous session token grants authenticated API access.
  3. A pre-login token becomes invalid after sign-in and no longer grants the authenticated session.
  4. The UI displays a different username while the underlying session cookie remains reusable from a second browser.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A pre-login token becomes invalid after sign-in and no longer grants the authenticated session. Keeping an attacker-known pre-login ID allows session fixation despite successful MFA.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A fixed session identifier has improperly crossed the authentication boundary.

B:

Successful MFA alone cannot demonstrate safe session regeneration.

D:

Visible identity changes do not prove invalidation of attacker-known tokens.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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