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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 43

Question 420

Management implemented a response after this event: A team only tests deployed HTTP behavior and misses unsafe file-handling code in unused branches. The response was: Combine source-focused security review or SAST with runtime tests aligned to threat models. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. DAST reports no vulnerabilities while a direct source review reveals unchecked unsafe file operations.
  2. SAST flags many patterns but no representative runtime abuse case is verified or triaged.
  3. The pipeline records both tool names without showing which source-only and live paths were exercised.
  4. A source-only vulnerability is found and an exploitable runtime path is confirmed separately.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A source-only vulnerability is found and an exploitable runtime path is confirmed separately. Static and dynamic testing reveal different classes of defects and coverage gaps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Runtime-only success does not prove unexecuted code is safe.

B:

Static hits alone do not establish exploitable operational outcomes.

C:

A checklist of tools is not tested coverage evidence.

Question 421

An image-processing service passes normal unit tests but crashes on malformed binary headers from users. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Rely only on hand-written valid image samples to test a parser exposed to arbitrary user file bytes.
  2. Use mutation/generation fuzzing with sanitizers and triage reproducible failures.
  3. Enable only image format extension filters and assume binary parse errors are impossible.
  4. Disable crash reporting while allowing the same untrusted parser implementation to run.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unexpected inputs expose parser crashes and memory-corruption behavior absent from happy-path tests. A crash is not automatically exploitable, so impact and reachability must be evaluated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Happy-path inputs cannot explore malformed-header and memory-safety behaviors.

C:

File-name checks do not validate internal lengths, magic bytes or malformed structures.

D:

Removing visibility cannot eliminate memory errors from adversarial inputs.

Question 422

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An image-processing service passes normal unit tests but crashes on malformed binary headers from users. The approved response was: Use mutation/generation fuzzing with sanitizers and triage reproducible failures. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Every crash found by fuzzing automatically proves a remotely exploitable arbitrary-code execution path.
  2. A crash is not automatically exploitable, so impact and reachability must be evaluated.
  3. A clean unit-test suite proves malformed inputs cannot trigger memory corruption.
  4. Fuzzing without sanitizers or reproducible seeds is sufficient to classify every observed crash accurately.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unexpected inputs expose parser crashes and memory-corruption behavior absent from happy-path tests. Malformed-input regression tests no longer crash and retain supported image functionality.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Crashes require reachability, exploitability and impact triage.

C:

Normal tests often miss hostile length fields and parser state combinations.

D:

Diagnostics and reliable reproduction are needed to understand failure severity.

Question 423

Management implemented a response after this event: An image-processing service passes normal unit tests but crashes on malformed binary headers from users. The response was: Use mutation/generation fuzzing with sanitizers and triage reproducible failures. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A normal JPEG opens correctly but malformed header variations repeatedly crash the service.
  2. Malformed-input regression tests no longer crash and retain supported image functionality.
  3. The fuzzing job reports high execution count but reproducible crashes remain unfixed.
  4. An extension filter rejects .exe files while specially crafted .jpg payloads still crash the parser.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Malformed-input regression tests no longer crash and retain supported image functionality. Unexpected inputs expose parser crashes and memory-corruption behavior absent from happy-path tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Positive decoding tests cannot establish adversarial parser robustness.

C:

Fuzzing activity alone is not remediation effectiveness.

D:

Filename checks cannot substitute for safe binary processing tests.

Question 424

A banking API validates user login but accepts an arbitrary account_id in a transaction-update request. A normal customer can change another customer’s record by modifying that parameter. What server-side correction BEST prevents this?

  1. Replace sequential account IDs with random UUIDs but keep the same unguarded account lookup.
  2. Hide the update button in the mobile application whenever the current user is not the account owner.
  3. Check each requested account and operation against the authenticated principal’s entitlements before processing, and reject cross-customer access.
  4. Raise the login password length requirement without adding account-level authorization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authentication establishes identity; object-level authorization must be enforced at the resource on every read/write request. An unguessable ID is not an access-control decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unpredictable references slow guessing but a leaked identifier would still grant unauthorized access.

B:

An attacker can call the API directly; authorization must be enforced on the server independently of UI visibility.

D:

Stronger authentication does not prevent an authenticated customer from requesting someone else’s record.

Question 425

An engineering team hides cross-account buttons in its banking web interface and implements a server-side authorization middleware. Which remaining assumption MUST be verified?

  1. The numeric length of the account ID is long enough that object authorization can be disabled.
  2. Browser CORS settings prevent native clients or service calls from accessing other customers’ records.
  3. Rate limiting blocks every unauthorized account lookup regardless of caller entitlements.
  4. Every path to each account object—including alternate HTTP methods, bulk endpoints and internal calls—actually invokes the current authorization decision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A good policy cannot protect bypassable routes. Complete mediation and negative cross-principal tests must cover all interfaces, not just the obvious UI button.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identifier length is not permission enforcement and does not protect exposed IDs.

B:

CORS is a browser-origin mechanism, not a general substitute for server-side resource authorization.

C:

Rate limits can slow attacks but do not decide whether an individual transaction is authorized.

Question 426

A banking API team claims to have fixed cross-customer account modification. Which test result BEST confirms the control?

  1. Every customer can log in using MFA, without testing the requested account owner.
  2. The web UI omits the unauthorized button, but a direct API request succeeds.
  3. Account IDs are random rather than sequential, but known foreign IDs can still be modified.
  4. A legitimate customer can change only their own account; the same authenticated token receives denial when attempting another customer’s account by changing identifiers or endpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Positive own-resource and negative other-resource tests directly exercise object-level authorization at the API and detect insecure direct-object references.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication assurance says nothing about unauthorized access between authenticated customers.

B:

A direct-request bypass demonstrates the authorization defect remains exploitable.

C:

Unpredictability is defense in depth, not proof of enforced resource authorization.

Question 427

An independent assessor tests whether emergency firewall changes left any systems outside the approved baseline. Which assessment design BEST demonstrates continued configuration compliance after changes?

  1. Approve a baseline at initial installation and ignore later console changes to live servers.
  2. Perform independent, representative post-change compliance assessment against the authorized baseline, reconcile findings with approved exceptions, and require evidenced remediation.
  3. Reboot every drifted server immediately without reviewing emergency change authorizations.
  4. Declare systems compliant based on an inventory screenshot rather than evaluating current configured controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Compliance assurance requires examining the actual effective configuration after change, not relying on the original deployment record. Representative scope, approved exceptions and observed remediation distinguish independent assessment from routine operational drift handling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One-time compliance cannot detect configuration drift after deployment.

C:

Blind automation can reverse necessary approved changes and cause outages.

D:

Asset visibility does not prove baseline conformity over time.

Question 428

The assessor samples a changed firewall fleet and finds control drift. Which weakness in the assessment plan is MOST important to acknowledge before declaring the full fleet compliant?

  1. Unrepresentative sampling can miss drift in systems not examined, requiring risk-based population coverage and explicit limitations.
  2. Automated baseline correction can run blindly without emergency change protection or business impact evaluation.
  3. A once-certified configuration remains compliant indefinitely because its image was approved originally.
  4. Having an approved template guarantees every running instance still matches it after manual changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An assessor cannot generalize from a convenience sample to all devices without defining the population and selection limits. This is an assurance coverage decision rather than a decision about how operations should roll back an individual firewall.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A valid exception may be essential for service and needs controlled review.

C:

Operational modifications can invalidate the deployed configuration later.

D:

Actual configuration must be measured against the approved policy.

Question 429

An independent compliance review follows emergency configuration changes. Which evidence BEST supports an audit conclusion that required controls remain enforced across the assessed population?

  1. A sampled, dated comparison of actual firewall rules against the approved baseline, documented approved exceptions, and observed retest of corrected noncompliance.
  2. A firewall passes its deployment checklist but remains in an unauthorized emergency allow state months later.
  3. A drift monitor sends a notice but neither remediates nor records an authorized exception for the risky rule.
  4. An inventory says the firewalls are identical while live rule comparisons show unexpected differences.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Population coverage, effective-state comparison, authorized exceptions and remediation retesting together demonstrate independent compliance assurance rather than simply reporting a configuration drift alert.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Initial approval does not demonstrate ongoing baseline enforcement.

C:

Detection alone is not complete monitored compliance treatment.

D:

Declared similarity is not configuration-state evidence.

Question 430

A dashboard reports how many firewalls were installed rather than how often unauthorized connections succeed. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Report total firewalls purchased as the principal measure of whether unauthorized access risk is controlled.
  2. Raise the number of completed security tickets without checking successful bypass frequency.
  3. Keep risk dashboards green by removing anomalous access events from the reporting source.
  4. Separate implementation KPIs from risk indicators measuring exposure or control failure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Activity measures can look healthy while business risk remains unacceptable. A single risk indicator may be noisy and needs thresholds, owners and trend analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deployment activity is not an outcome metric for effective access denial.

B:

Work throughput cannot substitute for actual exposure and control failure indicators.

C:

Suppressing adverse signals hides rather than reduces the business threat.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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