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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 44

Question 430

A dashboard reports how many firewalls were installed rather than how often unauthorized connections succeed. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Report total firewalls purchased as the principal measure of whether unauthorized access risk is controlled.
  2. Raise the number of completed security tickets without checking successful bypass frequency.
  3. Keep risk dashboards green by removing anomalous access events from the reporting source.
  4. Separate implementation KPIs from risk indicators measuring exposure or control failure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Activity measures can look healthy while business risk remains unacceptable. A single risk indicator may be noisy and needs thresholds, owners and trend analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deployment activity is not an outcome metric for effective access denial.

B:

Work throughput cannot substitute for actual exposure and control failure indicators.

C:

Suppressing adverse signals hides rather than reduces the business threat.

Question 431

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A dashboard reports how many firewalls were installed rather than how often unauthorized connections succeed. The approved response was: Separate implementation KPIs from risk indicators measuring exposure or control failure. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A high count of installed appliances proves unauthorized network access no longer occurs.
  2. A single risk indicator may be noisy and needs thresholds, owners and trend analysis.
  3. One KRI value should trigger irreversible action without trend or confidence evaluation.
  4. The same KPI can always represent a risk outcome even when it counts only completed work.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Activity measures can look healthy while business risk remains unacceptable. Reports include unauthorized-access outcomes and action triggers, not equipment counts alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control volume does not measure whether unauthorized connections succeed.

C:

Risk indicators may be noisy and need thresholds, owners and context.

D:

Implementation counts and outcome indicators measure different things.

Question 432

Management implemented a response after this event: A dashboard reports how many firewalls were installed rather than how often unauthorized connections succeed. The response was: Separate implementation KPIs from risk indicators measuring exposure or control failure. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The board sees a 30 percent rise in firewall purchases while undetected access bypasses increase.
  2. Reports include unauthorized-access outcomes and action triggers, not equipment counts alone.
  3. A dashboard includes hardware deployment dates but no measured denial or intrusion outcomes.
  4. A compliance report is complete without any risk threshold or accountable response when unauthorized flows succeed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reports include unauthorized-access outcomes and action triggers, not equipment counts alone. Activity measures can look healthy while business risk remains unacceptable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Purchases cannot prove a reduction in unauthorized connections.

C:

Configuration milestones are not control-failure indicators.

D:

A display of activity does not support risk-driven management decisions.

Question 433

An independent audit receives a quarterly access-certification dashboard showing 100% completion, but it omits the total population of accounts and entitlements and offers no evidence that rejected grants were actually removed. What is the BEST assessment step?

  1. Accept the completion percentage as independent proof of effective least privilege without identifying the assessed population.
  2. Reconcile a complete in-scope entitlement population to dated, informed owner decisions and independently sample effective post-review removals, recording coverage gaps.
  3. Ask managers to sign another overall approval without exposing which privileges were reviewed.
  4. Rely only on closed revocation tickets, without validating that forbidden access has actually stopped.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The assessor must distinguish operational attestation from independently testable population completeness and enforcement evidence. Reconciliation and negative access tests can reveal accounts omitted from the certification dashboard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A completion metric lacks an audit denominator and does not show whether every applicable entitlement was reviewed.

C:

A second signature does not create population coverage, privilege-level decisions or independent evidence.

D:

Ticket status is self-reported workflow evidence and cannot establish enforcement or complete assessment coverage.

Question 434

An auditor reconciles all users and service accounts to the quarterly certification roster and confirms that every manager clicked a review action. What material assurance limitation still remains?

  1. A complete roster establishes that each access permission must be business appropriate even when no one knows its capabilities.
  2. Coverage and signoff alone do not establish meaningful privilege-level decisions or implemented revocations; the independent test needs supporting detail and effective-access samples.
  3. Internal auditors should approve and operate privilege changes themselves to prove their independence.
  4. Rarely used service accounts can be automatically omitted from the review denominator if all employees appear.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Access-certification operating effectiveness requires more than a completed workflow. An auditor must assess why rights were approved and whether removals changed actual enforcement, not simply whether review rows existed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Population completeness is necessary but cannot prove correct authorization or meaningful owner judgment.

C:

Taking operational ownership of the reviewed control undermines independent assessment and does not prove prior effectiveness.

D:

Machine credentials may carry material privilege and cannot be excluded solely because they are not human identities.

Question 435

What independent sample BEST verifies that a quarter-long access-review control covered the intended population and enforced manager revocation decisions?

  1. A signed summary spreadsheet with no extract of identities, privileges, effective dates or reviewer decisions.
  2. A ticket closure count that does not reconcile to entitlement systems after the requested changes.
  3. A sample drawn only from the newest employees and none of the privileged or service accounts.
  4. An assessor-selected sample reconciles HR, service accounts and actual grants to dated owner decisions, then confirms denied entitlements fail at the enforcement point.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The evidence tests the independent auditor’s three assertions: complete scoped population, meaningful decision records and verified remediation. Unlike an operational recertification instruction, the assessment samples actual enforced outcomes across the period.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A summary cannot be reconciled to the source population or prove actual enforcement.

B:

Workflow closure alone cannot show each denied grant was removed from the real policy enforcement point.

C:

Convenience sampling understates risk and cannot substantiate the entire scoped population.

Question 436

A backup system reports 100% successful nightly copy jobs, but nobody has restored the application or verified business transactions. What control assurance should be added?

  1. Declare recovery readiness complete because the backup agent reports success every night.
  2. Run representative timed restore tests that validate data integrity, dependent identities/keys and business functionality against signed RTO and RPO.
  3. Disable restore testing to minimize utilization of secondary systems.
  4. Assume the most recent backup automatically meets the restoration-time target if its RPO is good.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Completed backup jobs show that some data was copied, not that systems can be rebuilt and used within tolerated outage/data-loss limits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A copy status cannot prove decryption, application dependency readiness or actual service restoration.

C:

Avoiding tests preserves uncertainty and can hide data or configuration failures until a real disaster.

D:

Data freshness and time to recover are independent; a recent backup may still take hours to restore.

Question 437

A team performs one successful database-only restore. What limitation should be reported before using this as proof that all payroll recovery requirements are met?

  1. The test may omit application logic, identity, keys, networking and other failure scenarios; complete workflow tests and repeated sampling are required.
  2. A database restore automatically proves every external payroll partner will be online at disaster time.
  3. Once one restore works, all future backup versions are guaranteed good without testing.
  4. A passing database checksum is sufficient even when the application cannot authenticate to it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A database restore can succeed while service login or end-to-end business transactions still fail. The test scope must match the BIA’s recovery requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Dependencies outside the database are not exercised by restoring the database alone.

C:

Backups and dependencies change, so ongoing recovery testing remains necessary.

D:

Integrity is necessary but not sufficient for end-to-end payroll service availability.

Question 438

An organization claims its backup control is effective for payroll business continuity. Which report MOST convincingly supports the claim?

  1. The storage console shows 100% successful backup jobs for the last quarter.
  2. A sampled complete restore completes a representative payroll transaction within approved RTO, demonstrates data age within RPO and records required keys and dependencies.
  3. The DB restore completes but the payroll application is unavailable because its identity provider was omitted.
  4. The reported restored data age is low, but no one measures elapsed application downtime.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Business function, recovery time and retained data timestamp are independent measurable acceptance criteria; all are necessary for the advertised readiness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Job counts do not establish that recovery has ever succeeded.

C:

That is evidence of incomplete service recovery, not a passed business continuity test.

D:

A passing RPO alone does not prove the separately required RTO.

Question 439

A penetration test prioritizes a remotely exploitable payment bypass below low-impact missing security headers. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Rank every scanner result strictly by numeric severity without considering proven payment fraud and external exposure.
  2. Deprioritize the exploitable payment vulnerability because the missing HTTP security header is simpler to fix.
  3. Rank findings by verified exploitability, exposure, protected data and business consequence.
  4. Hide the payment issue in a technical appendix without telling decision makers about its transaction impact.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A generic scanner score alone may not reflect risk to the assessed business process. Low-severity findings still require ownership and appropriate remediation tracking.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Generic scores can miss the demonstrated business consequence of an exploited control bypass.

B:

Convenience of remediation should not eclipse material verified business risk.

D:

Reporting should prioritize accountable business treatment of serious findings.

Question 440

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A penetration test prioritizes a remotely exploitable payment bypass below low-impact missing security headers. The approved response was: Rank findings by verified exploitability, exposure, protected data and business consequence. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A low generic CVSS score necessarily means a remotely exploited payment authorization bypass is a minor business issue.
  2. An easy fix can be prioritized ahead of any larger demonstrated exposure solely because it closes tickets quickly.
  3. Low-severity findings still require ownership and appropriate remediation tracking.
  4. Low-priority security headers can be ignored forever once the payment flaw is fixed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A generic scanner score alone may not reflect risk to the assessed business process. The final report clearly prioritizes the demonstrated payment bypass and its compensating controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business context and exploit evidence may justify greater urgency.

B:

Activity optimization does not replace business-risk-based findings triage.

D:

Other findings still require ownership and proportionate remediation.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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