Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
2 products

You save $34.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Lectures
$74.99 $109.98

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 18

Question 170

A serverless team repeats custom Lambda, API Gateway and event permission definitions by hand in multiple applications.

Which AWS-specific principle most directly explains the desired solution?

  1. Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes.
  2. A change set previews intended stack resource actions including potential replacements, reducing surprise when modifying infrastructure.
  3. SAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls.
  4. External secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls. This explains the implementation decision: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. Verification should show the following: A validated SAM build and deployment creates expected functions, event sources and permissions consistently in test and production.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudformation drift detection, for which the relevant intervention is: Run CloudFormation drift detection on supported resources and reconcile unauthorized differences back into the declared template state. The scenario requires understanding sam serverless templates, where sAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls.

B:

A change set previews intended stack resource actions including potential replacements, reducing surprise when modifying infrastructure. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudformation change sets, for which the relevant intervention is: Create and inspect a CloudFormation change set with replacement details and require approval before executing it. The scenario requires understanding sam serverless templates, where sAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls.

D:

External secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of stack parameters and secrets, for which the relevant intervention is: Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults. The scenario requires understanding sam serverless templates, where sAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls.

Question 171

An internet-facing ALB-backed API sees repetitive malicious HTTP payloads despite correct security-group network port restrictions.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. The designated security account sees expected member-account findings with severity, resource identifiers and assigned disposition.
  2. Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.
  3. Attempts to make protected data buckets public fail, while approved public assets use a separately controlled distribution path.
  4. A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates. It directly verifies the change: Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. The test matters because wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The designated security account sees expected member-account findings with severity, resource identifiers and assigned disposition. That result would help prove security hub aggregated posture, where the relevant action is: Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For waf managed web rules, the decisive verification is: Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.

C:

Attempts to make protected data buckets public fail, while approved public assets use a separately controlled distribution path. That result would help prove s3 public access guardrail, where the relevant action is: Enable appropriate S3 Block Public Access settings at account or bucket scope and provide a separate approved public-content pattern. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For waf managed web rules, the decisive verification is: Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.

D:

A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client. That result would help prove data transport encryption, where the relevant action is: Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For waf managed web rules, the decisive verification is: Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.

Question 172

A transactional RDS instance runs in one Availability Zone, and leadership requires database availability through an AZ outage without changing applications.

Which failure is most directly exposed by leaving the problem unresolved?

  1. Monitoring a superficial TCP port instead of the real API can route customers to a functionally broken Region.
  2. Reporting queries continue overloading the primary because a standby cannot serve the expected read traffic.
  3. A single-AZ database outage can halt transactions even if application instances remain healthy in other zones.
  4. Assuming globally synchronous writes can cause stale read or conflicting-update behavior during network disruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A single-AZ database outage can halt transactions even if application instances remain healthy in other zones. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Multi-AZ provides a synchronously replicated standby for availability; it is not a mechanism to increase read throughput. The corresponding mitigation is: Enable a supported RDS Multi-AZ deployment and validate failover behavior using its database endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitoring a superficial TCP port instead of the real API can route customers to a functionally broken Region. That is a credible concern for route 53 regional failover, normally addressed by: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A single-AZ database outage can halt transactions even if application instances remain healthy in other zones.

B:

Reporting queries continue overloading the primary because a standby cannot serve the expected read traffic. That is a credible concern for rds reader scaling distinction, normally addressed by: Add read replicas or another suitable read-scaling path and direct read-only workloads to them, retaining Multi-AZ for failover. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A single-AZ database outage can halt transactions even if application instances remain healthy in other zones.

D:

Assuming globally synchronous writes can cause stale read or conflicting-update behavior during network disruption. That is a credible concern for dynamodb global tables, normally addressed by: Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A single-AZ database outage can halt transactions even if application instances remain healthy in other zones.

Question 173

A team receives AWS Health events but does not route planned service maintenance notices to the responsible workload owners.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Paging on every correlated signal causes alert fatigue and multiple competing incident records.
  2. Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.
  3. An unsuitable metric or hypersensitive alarm causes thrashing, high cost and unstable application latency.
  4. Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: AWS Health reports account-relevant service events; EventBridge enables filtered operational responses instead of relying on manual console review. The corresponding mitigation is: Send relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to owner-specific notification and operations workflows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Paging on every correlated signal causes alert fatigue and multiple competing incident records. That is a credible concern for composite alarm noise, normally addressed by: Use CloudWatch composite alarms to combine related alarm states and page on actionable combined conditions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.

C:

An unsuitable metric or hypersensitive alarm causes thrashing, high cost and unstable application latency. That is a credible concern for autoscaling alarms, normally addressed by: Use a scaling policy tied to a relevant ALB request-count-per-target or equivalent demand metric with appropriate evaluation periods. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.

D:

Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily. That is a credible concern for auto recovery ec2 status, normally addressed by: Configure a CloudWatch system status-check alarm with supported EC2 recovery action after validating instance eligibility. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.

Question 174

An object-created event triggers a resource-cleanup Lambda twice and the second invocation deletes an asset created by the first.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result.
  2. An allowed member account sends a health event to the security account and an unknown account is rejected.
  3. A selected outage-window replay restores missing incident records without duplicating previously completed remediation actions.
  4. An induced target permission failure stores the undelivered event in the DLQ and pages an owner for remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result. It directly verifies the change: Make event handlers idempotent with event identifiers, conditional state transitions and safely repeatable operations. The test matters because event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An allowed member account sends a health event to the security account and an unknown account is rejected. That result would help prove cross account event routing, where the relevant action is: Configure permitted cross-account EventBridge event-bus routing with resource policies and carefully scoped matching rules. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For duplicate event delivery, the decisive verification is: Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result.

C:

A selected outage-window replay restores missing incident records without duplicating previously completed remediation actions. That result would help prove eventbridge archive replay, where the relevant action is: Use an EventBridge archive and replay strategy on the intended event bus with idempotent processing and scope controls. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For duplicate event delivery, the decisive verification is: Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result.

D:

An induced target permission failure stores the undelivered event in the DLQ and pages an owner for remediation. That result would help prove event target failure dlq, where the relevant action is: Configure EventBridge target retry behavior and a supported dead-letter queue with monitored failure metrics. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For duplicate event delivery, the decisive verification is: Replaying one event produces the same final intended state with one effective cleanup action and traceable result.

Question 175

An ecommerce workload handled baseline requests in staging but regularly saturates at the expected seasonal concurrency.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Test data isolation protects customer information and prevents test mutations from changing production state while still exercising application behavior.
  2. Smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning.
  3. Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.
  4. Integration validation verifies actual service contracts and IAM connectivity that isolated unit tests cannot establish.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe. This explains the implementation decision: Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. Verification should show the following: Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Test data isolation protects customer information and prevents test mutations from changing production state while still exercising application behavior. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of test data isolation, for which the relevant intervention is: Provision isolated, access-controlled synthetic or sanitized test data and use environment-specific credentials for integration tests. The scenario requires understanding load test before peak, where performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

B:

Smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of acceptance smoke validation, for which the relevant intervention is: Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result. The scenario requires understanding load test before peak, where performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

D:

Integration validation verifies actual service contracts and IAM connectivity that isolated unit tests cannot establish. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of end-to-end integration gate, for which the relevant intervention is: Run automated integration tests against a representative deployed test environment before permitting production promotion. The scenario requires understanding load test before peak, where performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

Question 176

A team configures dev by code but fixes production stack failures through undocumented console changes with no reconciliation.

Which evidence most directly demonstrates that the requirement has been met?

  1. A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced.
  2. A validated SAM build and deployment creates expected functions, event sources and permissions consistently in test and production.
  3. An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules.
  4. The production stack resource state matches reviewed source after deployment and emergency changes have corresponding commits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The production stack resource state matches reviewed source after deployment and emergency changes have corresponding commits. It directly verifies the change: Require infrastructure modifications through version-controlled approved IaC pipelines and reconcile emergency changes into source promptly. The test matters because declarative source control provides a reviewable desired state; production console drift undermines repeatability and auditability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced. That result would help prove cloudformation deletion protections, where the relevant action is: Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iac environment promotion, the decisive verification is: The production stack resource state matches reviewed source after deployment and emergency changes have corresponding commits.

B:

A validated SAM build and deployment creates expected functions, event sources and permissions consistently in test and production. That result would help prove sam serverless templates, where the relevant action is: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iac environment promotion, the decisive verification is: The production stack resource state matches reviewed source after deployment and emergency changes have corresponding commits.

C:

An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules. That result would help prove template lint and policy checks, where the relevant action is: Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iac environment promotion, the decisive verification is: The production stack resource state matches reviewed source after deployment and emergency changes have corresponding commits.

Question 177

Encrypted application data is copied for disaster recovery to a separate AWS Region and account, but destination operators cannot decrypt it.

What technical reasoning best supports the required control?

  1. Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.
  2. KMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data.
  3. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.
  4. ACM can automate supported public certificate renewals when domain validation and service integration remain valid.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

KMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data. This explains the implementation decision: Plan destination-region KMS key access and supported re-encryption or key replication patterns in the recovery workflow. Verification should show the following: An authorized recovery-role test decrypts a replicated backup in the designated Region without broad access grants.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of s3 public access guardrail, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable appropriate S3 Block Public Access settings at account or bucket scope and provide a separate approved public-content pattern. The scenario requires understanding cross account encryption keys, where kMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data.

C:

Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of security hub aggregated posture, for which the relevant intervention is: Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership. The scenario requires understanding cross account encryption keys, where kMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data.

D:

ACM can automate supported public certificate renewals when domain validation and service integration remain valid. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of acm certificate lifecycle, for which the relevant intervention is: Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association. The scenario requires understanding cross account encryption keys, where kMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data.

Question 178

An ALB serves a web application deployed to EC2 instances only in one Availability Zone despite unused subnet capacity in a second AZ.

Which technical interpretation is the strongest for this case?

  1. Multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets.
  2. Intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.
  3. Global tables replicate writes across participating Regions and support local read/write access, but cross-Region convergence is asynchronous.
  4. DNS health-based routing can redirect new resolutions after unhealthy status is detected, but client caching can delay convergence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets. This explains the implementation decision: Distribute Auto Scaling instances across multiple Availability Zones and register healthy targets with the ALB. Verification should show the following: The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of aurora regional disaster availability, for which the relevant intervention is: Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection. The scenario requires understanding stateless application across zones, where multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets.

C:

Global tables replicate writes across participating Regions and support local read/write access, but cross-Region convergence is asynchronous. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of dynamodb global tables, for which the relevant intervention is: Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes. The scenario requires understanding stateless application across zones, where multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets.

D:

DNS health-based routing can redirect new resolutions after unhealthy status is detected, but client caching can delay convergence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of route 53 regional failover, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. The scenario requires understanding stateless application across zones, where multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets.

Question 179

A custom EC2 worker exposes business queue-lag counters in local files, but operations see only basic EC2 CPU metrics.

Which approach best meets the reliability and security constraints?

  1. Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls.
  2. Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter using the error pattern, then alarm on the emitted custom metric.
  3. Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling.
  4. Install and configure the CloudWatch agent or application instrumentation to publish needed custom metrics and log events with useful dimensions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Install and configure the CloudWatch agent or application instrumentation to publish needed custom metrics and log events with useful dimensions. Basic EC2 metrics do not automatically expose application-specific counters or custom log content; agents and instrumentation provide those signals. The relevant operational proof is specific: A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. That would address central encrypted log archive, because a dedicated log archive separates custody from workload operators while encryption and scoped permissions protect retained evidence. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudwatch agent custom telemetry. Basic EC2 metrics do not automatically expose application-specific counters or custom log content; agents and instrumentation provide those signals.

B:

Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter using the error pattern, then alarm on the emitted custom metric. That would address metric filter error counts, because metric filters translate matching ingested log events into CloudWatch metric data that alarm logic can evaluate. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudwatch agent custom telemetry. Basic EC2 metrics do not automatically expose application-specific counters or custom log content; agents and instrumentation provide those signals.

C:

Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling. That would address kinesis subscription processing, because subscriptions forward matching log events to a processor such as Kinesis Data Streams or Lambda shortly after ingestion. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudwatch agent custom telemetry. Basic EC2 metrics do not automatically expose application-specific counters or custom log content; agents and instrumentation provide those signals.

Question 180

CodeDeploy reports successful artifact transfer but production application errors spike during the canary exposure window.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. A staged configuration causes the error alarm and the client fleet returns to the previous approved setting.
  2. Eligible hosts receive patches in the approved window with compliance changes recorded and sensitive exceptions escalated.
  3. A test public-SSH rule is removed from the intended group and approved exception groups are not altered.
  4. A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision. It directly verifies the change: Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold. The test matters because codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A staged configuration causes the error alarm and the client fleet returns to the previous approved setting. That result would help prove parameter change rollback, where the relevant action is: Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

B:

Eligible hosts receive patches in the approved window with compliance changes recorded and sensitive exceptions escalated. That result would help prove patch compliance event action, where the relevant action is: Drive an approved patch remediation workflow from compliance findings with maintenance windows, staged rollout and exclusions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

C:

A test public-SSH rule is removed from the intended group and approved exception groups are not altered. That result would help prove config rule network remediation, where the relevant action is: Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports