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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 19

Question 180

CodeDeploy reports successful artifact transfer but production application errors spike during the canary exposure window.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. A staged configuration causes the error alarm and the client fleet returns to the previous approved setting.
  2. Eligible hosts receive patches in the approved window with compliance changes recorded and sensitive exceptions escalated.
  3. A test public-SSH rule is removed from the intended group and approved exception groups are not altered.
  4. A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision. It directly verifies the change: Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold. The test matters because codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A staged configuration causes the error alarm and the client fleet returns to the previous approved setting. That result would help prove parameter change rollback, where the relevant action is: Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

B:

Eligible hosts receive patches in the approved window with compliance changes recorded and sensitive exceptions escalated. That result would help prove patch compliance event action, where the relevant action is: Drive an approved patch remediation workflow from compliance findings with maintenance windows, staged rollout and exclusions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

C:

A test public-SSH rule is removed from the intended group and approved exception groups are not altered. That result would help prove config rule network remediation, where the relevant action is: Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For failed deployment reversion, the decisive verification is: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

Question 181

An application pipeline stores its database password in plain-text buildspec environment variables committed to the repository.

Which failure mode should the DevOps engineer prioritize?

  1. A second uncontrolled production build can introduce dependencies or code that were never tested in staging.
  2. Incorrect branch filters can deploy unreviewed development code or bypass quality gates in production.
  3. Rebuilding binaries for each environment undermines promotion integrity and can connect test workloads to production data.
  4. A committed password remains exposed in cloned repositories and cannot be safely rotated by editing only the build stage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A committed password remains exposed in cloned repositories and cannot be safely rotated by editing only the build stage. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential. The corresponding mitigation is: Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A second uncontrolled production build can introduce dependencies or code that were never tested in staging. That is a credible concern for promotion using one build, normally addressed by: Build the release once in CodeBuild and promote the same immutable, versioned artifact through all approved environments. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A committed password remains exposed in cloned repositories and cannot be safely rotated by editing only the build stage.

B:

Incorrect branch filters can deploy unreviewed development code or bypass quality gates in production. That is a credible concern for branch-aware ci triggers, normally addressed by: Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A committed password remains exposed in cloned repositories and cannot be safely rotated by editing only the build stage.

C:

Rebuilding binaries for each environment undermines promotion integrity and can connect test workloads to production data. That is a credible concern for environment configuration separation, normally addressed by: Keep environment-specific settings in deployment-time configuration such as Parameter Store or AppConfig while preserving the immutable build. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A committed password remains exposed in cloned repositories and cannot be safely rotated by editing only the build stage.

Question 182

Operators change production security-group ingress rules directly while the repository template continues to show a narrower port policy.

Which AWS operational change most directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation.
  2. Run CloudFormation drift detection on supported resources and reconcile unauthorized differences back into the declared template state.
  3. Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets.
  4. Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Run CloudFormation drift detection on supported resources and reconcile unauthorized differences back into the declared template state. Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes. The relevant operational proof is specific: A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. That would address sam serverless templates, because sAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudformation drift detection. Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes.

C:

Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. That would address template lint and policy checks, because predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudformation drift detection. Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes.

D:

Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. That would address cloudformation deletion protections, because cloudFormation resource policies can retain or snapshot supported resources when stack deletion or replacement occurs, reducing accidental loss. However, the stated situation instead concerns cloudformation drift detection. Drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes.

Question 183

Root and privileged console users can sign in with passwords only, while the security program requires stronger authentication.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Enforce MFA for human privileged access and minimize root account use under an emergency-access procedure.
  2. Preserve the bucket's secure-transport explicit deny and update the client to use HTTPS rather than granting broader IAM access.
  3. Implement controlled IAM attribute-based access using principal and resource tags with protections against unauthorized tag changes.
  4. Require an IAM permissions boundary on developer-created roles in addition to appropriately scoped identity policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enforce MFA for human privileged access and minimize root account use under an emergency-access procedure. MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege. The relevant operational proof is specific: A privileged sign-in without the required second factor fails and emergency root access is governed and audited.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Preserve the bucket's secure-transport explicit deny and update the client to use HTTPS rather than granting broader IAM access. That would address resource based s3 policies, because iAM evaluation honors applicable explicit denies in resource policies, so identity permissions cannot override a transport-safety rule. However, the stated situation instead concerns multi factor privileged access. MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

C:

Implement controlled IAM attribute-based access using principal and resource tags with protections against unauthorized tag changes. That would address abac application teams, because aBAC compares attributes at authorization time and scales access policy without a separate policy per resource when tags are trustworthy. However, the stated situation instead concerns multi factor privileged access. MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

D:

Require an IAM permissions boundary on developer-created roles in addition to appropriately scoped identity policies. That would address permissions boundary delegation, because permissions boundaries limit the maximum permissions of the relevant IAM identity even if a developer grants broader identity-policy statements. However, the stated situation instead concerns multi factor privileged access. MFA adds an independent authentication factor and reduces risk from a stolen password, though authorization still requires least privilege.

Question 184

A transactional RDS instance runs in one Availability Zone, and leadership requires database availability through an AZ outage without changing applications.

What should operators verify before closing the issue?

  1. A regional loss leaves the other table accepting intended writes and tests confirm application tolerance of replication convergence.
  2. A forced AZ failure redirects the database endpoint to an available standby with recovery within the agreed objective.
  3. Read-only requests reach intended replica endpoints and the Multi-AZ failover test remains independent of reporting scale.
  4. A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A forced AZ failure redirects the database endpoint to an available standby with recovery within the agreed objective. It directly verifies the change: Enable a supported RDS Multi-AZ deployment and validate failover behavior using its database endpoint. The test matters because multi-AZ provides a synchronously replicated standby for availability; it is not a mechanism to increase read throughput.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A regional loss leaves the other table accepting intended writes and tests confirm application tolerance of replication convergence. That result would help prove dynamodb global tables, where the relevant action is: Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds multi az failover, the decisive verification is: A forced AZ failure redirects the database endpoint to an available standby with recovery within the agreed objective.

C:

Read-only requests reach intended replica endpoints and the Multi-AZ failover test remains independent of reporting scale. That result would help prove rds reader scaling distinction, where the relevant action is: Add read replicas or another suitable read-scaling path and direct read-only workloads to them, retaining Multi-AZ for failover. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds multi az failover, the decisive verification is: A forced AZ failure redirects the database endpoint to an available standby with recovery within the agreed objective.

D:

A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window. That result would help prove route 53 regional failover, where the relevant action is: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds multi az failover, the decisive verification is: A forced AZ failure redirects the database endpoint to an available standby with recovery within the agreed objective.

Question 185

Archived log objects arrive continuously in S3, yet analysts run a manual import job once a day before search indexes are updated.

Which AWS-specific principle most directly explains the desired solution?

  1. EC2 recover actions can restore an impaired underlying host for supported instances while retaining attached EBS storage and instance identity semantics.
  2. Config detects resource compliance and supported remediation integrates a controlled automation runbook to restore an approved state.
  3. Object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events.
  4. Autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events. This explains the implementation decision: Configure eligible S3 object-created events to trigger Lambda or an event processing workflow with deduplication and failure handling. Verification should show the following: A new log object is indexed promptly and replaying its event does not create duplicate search documents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EC2 recover actions can restore an impaired underlying host for supported instances while retaining attached EBS storage and instance identity semantics. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of auto recovery ec2 status, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure a CloudWatch system status-check alarm with supported EC2 recovery action after validating instance eligibility. The scenario requires understanding s3 log processing event, where object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events.

B:

Config detects resource compliance and supported remediation integrates a controlled automation runbook to restore an approved state. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of config rule auto remediation, for which the relevant intervention is: Use a Config rule with scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation for the specific unauthorized ingress condition. The scenario requires understanding s3 log processing event, where object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events.

D:

Autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of monitoring fleet agents, for which the relevant intervention is: Install and configure required monitoring agents through the image or managed bootstrap and validate reporting on every new instance. The scenario requires understanding s3 log processing event, where object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events.

Question 186

An ECS service deployment creates new tasks that repeatedly STOP with an initialization error when pulling a private container image.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Increasing timeout blindly can hold more concurrent invocations open and amplify pressure on an already degraded dependency.
  2. Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks.
  3. Deleting or manually changing stack resources during a failed rollback can worsen drift and make recovery harder.
  4. Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: The ECS task execution role and network path are needed to fetch container images before the application task can start. The corresponding mitigation is: Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Increasing timeout blindly can hold more concurrent invocations open and amplify pressure on an already degraded dependency. That is a credible concern for lambda timeout dependencies, normally addressed by: Correlate Lambda duration, timeout and downstream trace segments to identify whether the new code or dependency is responsible. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks.

C:

Deleting or manually changing stack resources during a failed rollback can worsen drift and make recovery harder. That is a credible concern for cloudformation update rollback, normally addressed by: Inspect stack events and resource dependencies, repair the root cause, then use supported rollback continuation before a new change set. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks.

D:

Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants. That is a credible concern for codebuild role denied artifact, normally addressed by: Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks.

Question 187

Every developer can overwrite internal release packages in CodeArtifact even though most users only need to install them.

Which statement correctly explains the implementation tradeoff?

  1. A repeatable image pipeline moves OS/package changes into a verifiable artifact instead of modifying live instances unpredictably.
  2. Reading an SSE-KMS object requires both permitted S3 access and effective permissions to use the encryption key.
  3. Least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories.
  4. Artifact lifecycle policy must balance storage cost with reproducible incident recovery, and deletion eligibility depends on release usage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories. This explains the implementation decision: Separate read-only consumer permissions from tightly scoped publisher rights for authorized build automation. Verification should show the following: Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A repeatable image pipeline moves OS/package changes into a verifiable artifact instead of modifying live instances unpredictably. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of golden ami pipeline, for which the relevant intervention is: Use EC2 Image Builder to create, test and distribute versioned patched AMIs for immutable instance replacement. The scenario requires understanding private registry publishing rights, where least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories.

B:

Reading an SSE-KMS object requires both permitted S3 access and effective permissions to use the encryption key. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cross-account kms artifacts, for which the relevant intervention is: Allow the target deployment role appropriate KMS decrypt access in the key policy and IAM permissions while keeping object access scoped. The scenario requires understanding private registry publishing rights, where least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories.

D:

Artifact lifecycle policy must balance storage cost with reproducible incident recovery, and deletion eligibility depends on release usage. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of artifact retention rules, for which the relevant intervention is: Define lifecycle policies that prune unused image versions while retaining active and approved rollback digests. The scenario requires understanding private registry publishing rights, where least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories.

Question 188

Developers submit IaC with unencrypted storage and unrestricted security-group rules, which reviewers discover only after account provisioning.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.
  2. CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources.
  3. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.
  4. Declarative source control provides a reviewable desired state; production console drift undermines repeatability and auditability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts. This explains the implementation decision: Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. Verification should show the following: An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of reusable network modules, for which the relevant intervention is: Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults. The scenario requires understanding template lint and policy checks, where predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

B:

CDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cdk synthesis review, for which the relevant intervention is: Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment. The scenario requires understanding template lint and policy checks, where predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

D:

Declarative source control provides a reviewable desired state; production console drift undermines repeatability and auditability. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of iac environment promotion, for which the relevant intervention is: Require infrastructure modifications through version-controlled approved IaC pipelines and reconcile emergency changes into source promptly. The scenario requires understanding template lint and policy checks, where predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

Question 189

Developers repeatedly change production encryption settings outside CloudFormation, and reviewers need to detect runtime violations in addition to template deviations.

Which failure mode should the DevOps engineer prioritize?

  1. Unreviewed resource policies can silently permit unintended cross-account access to sensitive assets.
  2. Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.
  3. Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified.
  4. Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Config evaluates supported resource state against rules, while CloudFormation drift compares actual properties with declared stack templates. The corresponding mitigation is: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unreviewed resource policies can silently permit unintended cross-account access to sensitive assets. That is a credible concern for iam access analyzer external access, normally addressed by: Enable IAM Access Analyzer for a suitable zone of trust and review supported external-access findings regularly. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment.

B:

Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes. That is a credible concern for security trail integrity, normally addressed by: Centralize organization CloudTrail logs under independent security ownership with log-file validation and appropriate object retention protections. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment.

C:

Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail suspicious console login, normally addressed by: Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Template review alone misses direct console changes applied after infrastructure deployment.

Question 190

A team documents a detailed disaster recovery plan but has never exercised data restoration or application dependency order.

What technical reasoning best supports the required control?

  1. A DR plan is an unproven hypothesis until tested with realistic failures, credentials, dependencies and measurement.
  2. Warm standby keeps a functional recovery stack running, shortening restore time relative to rebuilding from backups.
  3. PITR uses managed backups and transaction logs to recover to a chosen time in the retention window rather than only to fixed snapshot times.
  4. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A DR plan is an unproven hypothesis until tested with realistic failures, credentials, dependencies and measurement. This explains the implementation decision: Automate and regularly perform recovery game days that verify resource, data and application restoration against business targets. Verification should show the following: Recorded exercises demonstrate repeatable recovery steps, observed RTO/RPO and corrected shortcomings from failed tests.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Warm standby keeps a functional recovery stack running, shortening restore time relative to rebuilding from backups. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of warm standby recovery, for which the relevant intervention is: Maintain a reduced-capacity warm standby with replicated data and automation to scale it during failover. The scenario requires understanding recovery runbook validation, where a DR plan is an unproven hypothesis until tested with realistic failures, credentials, dependencies and measurement.

C:

PITR uses managed backups and transaction logs to recover to a chosen time in the retention window rather than only to fixed snapshot times. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of rds point in time recovery, for which the relevant intervention is: Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover. The scenario requires understanding recovery runbook validation, where a DR plan is an unproven hypothesis until tested with realistic failures, credentials, dependencies and measurement.

D:

Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of s3 versioned recovery, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. The scenario requires understanding recovery runbook validation, where a DR plan is an unproven hypothesis until tested with realistic failures, credentials, dependencies and measurement.

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