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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 1

Question 1

A security manager learns that customer records were exposed. His supervisor directs him to omit the event from the incident report and keep the designated disclosure officer uninformed. What is the security manager’s BEST next action?

  1. Follow the supervisor’s verbal instruction until the next annual compliance audit.
  2. Publish all affected customers’ records online immediately to prove transparency.
  3. Preserve relevant facts and evidence, document the conflict, and promptly escalate through authorized incident, ethics and disclosure channels.
  4. Delete the event log to protect confidentiality until a press statement is approved.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ISC2 ethics places public protection and honest, responsible conduct ahead of a supervisor’s informal suppression request. Escalation preserves decision authority and an evidentiary record; the authorized legal and disclosure teams determine external notification duties.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Waiting for a routine audit permits an unresolved possible disclosure duty and bypasses the authorized officer; hierarchy does not override professional ethics.

B:

Unauthorized publication causes further harm and cannot replace controlled notification by the competent legal or disclosure authority.

D:

Erasing relevant evidence undermines both integrity and investigation; confidentiality requires controlled access, not destruction of the incident record.

Question 2

The security manager has formally escalated the suppressed customer exposure and preserved relevant evidence. Which remaining issue MUST be evaluated before externally notifying affected customers?

  1. The incident’s applicable legal and contractual notification duties, jurisdiction, timing and authorized disclosure process.
  2. Whether the supervisor’s seniority exempts the organization from reporting obligations.
  3. Whether deleting the incident ticket can convert a reportable breach into a nonincident.
  4. Whether all customer details must be published unredacted before a legal review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Escalating an ethical conflict does not itself resolve jurisdictional reporting requirements. Legal, privacy and incident authorities must evaluate notice triggers and deadlines while protecting evidence and affected people.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A manager’s rank cannot waive applicable legal or contractual duties.

C:

Deleting an internal record does not change the facts or legal notification threshold and destroys evidence.

D:

The obligation is to evaluate appropriate, authorized notice—not indiscriminately disclose sensitive customer information.

Question 3

After a manager tried to suppress a confirmed customer-exposure event, the security function escalated through authorized channels. Which evidence BEST shows the governance response worked?

  1. The supervisor signs a memo saying there was no incident, without reviewing underlying records.
  2. A timestamped escalation and preserved-evidence record links the incident to a legal/disclosure assessment, authorized decision, and required notifications.
  3. An annual ethics course attendance record exists for the security team.
  4. A dashboard shows the affected service has recovered, but no disclosure decision is recorded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A complete trail proves the conflict reached competent decision-makers and that evidence and external communication were governed rather than silently concealed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A unilateral denial of the facts by the implicated supervisor is neither independent assessment nor evidence preservation.

C:

Training completion is not evidence that this specific disclosure conflict was escalated and resolved.

D:

Technical recovery and notification governance are separate duties; a healthy service does not establish a lawful reporting decision.

Question 4

A project manager asks a security architect to sign a safety-critical cryptographic design as competent even though she lacks experience with the chosen protocol. What is the MOST ethical response before acceptance?

  1. Sign now and study the protocol after the customer deploys it.
  2. Disclose the competency gap and obtain qualified cryptographic review before accepting design accountability.
  3. Ask the project manager to accept all cryptographic risks verbally.
  4. Copy a competitor's design without reviewing its threat model.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Professional honesty and diligence require adequate competence and verified expert oversight before representing a design as safe.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Post-deployment learning does not cure a knowingly unsupported assurance for a safety-critical system.

C:

An informal risk statement cannot substitute for qualified technical assessment or truthful professional representation.

D:

An unexamined reference design does not establish fitness for these keys, threats, or implementation constraints.

Question 5

A qualified independent cryptographer has reviewed the design, but the implementer lacks secure-key-handling expertise. What residual risk MOST warrants additional work?

  1. The cryptographer's title makes implementation testing unnecessary.
  2. Every cryptographic design is invalid unless the architect has an advanced academic degree.
  3. A correct algorithm can still fail through implementation and key-management defects that the design review did not inspect.
  4. Signing the design means the company has transferred all legal duties to the consultant.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The design opinion has a scope; implementation expertise, key custody and testing remain material to assurance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Credentials do not automatically validate deployed code, key storage or operational procedures.

B:

Competence depends on demonstrated expertise and appropriate review, not a universal degree requirement.

D:

A signature does not remove the organization's operational and governance responsibilities.

Question 6

What evidence BEST establishes that a safety-critical crypto-design competence gap was responsibly addressed?

  1. A scoped independent review records the assessed algorithms and implementation, unresolved risks, qualified reviewers, and completed tests.
  2. A project manager's email says the architect is experienced.
  3. The team lists the number of design meetings held.
  4. A standard encryption-library name appears in the architecture diagram.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This traceably demonstrates competent scrutiny and limitations rather than simply asserting expertise.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A managerial opinion gives no evidence that security assumptions and key-handling behavior were tested.

C:

Meeting counts cannot establish review quality, acceptance criteria or resolution of critical defects.

D:

Library selection alone does not prove correct integration, identity binding, or key custody.

Question 7

An assessor evaluating a vendor's security claims has a material personal investment in that vendor. What should happen BEFORE the procurement decision?

  1. Keep the ownership secret as long as assessment notes seem accurate.
  2. Allow the vendor to write the independent assessment conclusion.
  3. Disclose the interest and recuse the assessor; assign an unconflicted qualified reviewer.
  4. Approve the vendor automatically because the assessor's investment suggests confidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Financial incentives can undermine impartial evaluation even if no misconduct has yet been observed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Concealment prevents accountable parties from judging independence and managing the conflict.

B:

A supplier's self-assessment cannot replace impartial verification of supplier claims.

D:

Personal investment is not evidence of security effectiveness and heightens the conflict.

Question 8

After the conflicted assessor recuses, procurement assigns another reviewer. What issue STILL requires review?

  1. The original assessor's financial interest is eliminated from the world once recused.
  2. All supplier security controls become valid when an unconflicted employee signs the form.
  3. The organization must reject every vendor in which any employee owns a small stake.
  4. The replacement must independently verify control evidence and must not inherit unsupported vendor assurances.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Independence removes the conflict but cannot by itself make the supplied security claims true.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recusal manages decision participation; it does not extinguish existing ownership or disclosure obligations.

B:

Approval without control testing remains weak assurance regardless of who signed.

C:

Appropriate disclosure and mitigation depend on policy and materiality; blanket rejection is not universally required.

Question 9

What audit evidence BEST demonstrates effective conflict-of-interest management during procurement?

  1. Documented ownership disclosure, recusal from decision rights, independent evidence-based review, and approval trail.
  2. A procurement spreadsheet records only the cheapest bid.
  3. The conflicted assessor verbally promises not to favor the vendor.
  4. The selected vendor publishes a general marketing security brochure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

These records connect the conflict to a managed decision process and separately substantiate the technical conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Pricing does not show disclosure, impartiality, or evidence-based control assessment.

C:

An unverifiable promise does not remove decision authority or demonstrate independent review.

D:

Marketing assertions neither disclose the assessor's interest nor validate controls.

Question 10

A clinical telemetry stream is encrypted, but an attacker can substitute false measurements before the values reach patient-decision software. What control addresses the missing security property?

  1. Increase encryption key length while leaving the receiver unable to verify whether bytes were altered.
  2. Authenticate the data source and integrity-protect each message, rejecting altered or unauthenticated readings before clinical use.
  3. Hide the telemetry dashboard from visitors but accept any correctly formatted values from the network.
  4. Replicate the corrupted telemetry to three servers without checking signatures or tags.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Confidentiality prevents unauthorized observation; origin authentication and integrity validation detect unauthorized modification of measurements, which could affect patient safety.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stronger confidentiality does not itself validate data origin or detect substituted messages.

C:

UI access controls do not stop an attacker able to forge messages before ingestion.

D:

Replication can make false readings more available, not more authentic or trustworthy.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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