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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 3

Question 20

An executive risk owner signs a time-limited acceptance for a ransomware exposure based on current controls and forecast impact. What is the MOST important condition that prevents this approval from becoming a permanent waiver?

  1. Assume the decision is irrevocable until the next external audit, regardless of new incidents.
  2. Transfer the decision to system administrators by renaming the risk item as an IT exception.
  3. Define reassessment triggers, expiration, monitoring and escalation when threat likelihood or business impact changes.
  4. Stop measuring exposure as soon as the acceptance document is signed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Risk acceptance is bounded by assumptions. Material control failures, new exploitation or changes in business impact require review by accountable management rather than indefinite reliance on old approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A change in risk conditions invalidates indefinite reliance on the original assessment and may require immediate reassessment.

B:

Changing labels or owners without delegated approval does not reallocate risk accountability.

D:

Monitoring is essential to determine whether the accepted exposure remains within approved appetite.

Question 21

Management states that material cybersecurity risks are governed consistently with business priorities. Which audit sample MOST convincingly verifies this claim?

  1. The vulnerability scanner lists all open CVEs, but no owner or treatment decision exists.
  2. The CISO’s slide deck says risk has been accepted without a delegated owner or approval.
  3. A material risk decision identifies its business owner, assessed impact, treatment choice, tolerance threshold, approval, review date and escalation trigger.
  4. A finance report lists total security spend but no linkage to specific residual risks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This traces analysis through an accountable risk decision and a mechanism to revisit it, which is stronger than a security team’s unapproved opinion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technical detection does not demonstrate organizational risk ownership or approved treatment.

B:

A presentation is not evidence that the person authorized to accept business impact made the decision.

D:

Spending totals alone cannot show the basis, authority or continuing governance of particular risk acceptances.

Question 22

A firm publishes a mandatory patching policy but never checks whether production devices receive updates. Which program BEST demonstrates due care AND ongoing due diligence?

  1. Publish the policy in a handbook and assume each administrator complies.
  2. Purchase a patch management subscription and count its licenses.
  3. Treat an annually signed policy acknowledgment as proof that every vulnerability was fixed.
  4. Define risk-based patch requirements and repeatedly verify deployed coverage and exceptions with remediation evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reasonable protective policy must be paired with continuing evidence that controls operate and deficiencies are corrected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Publication shows intent but does not establish operating effectiveness.

B:

Tool procurement alone does not prove endpoints are patched or risk exceptions managed.

C:

Awareness of a policy is not equivalent to verifying each affected system's actual state.

Question 23

A patch dashboard shows 100% agents enrolled. What residual security concern is MOST important?

  1. The organization's written policy becomes invalid whenever one agent misses check-in.
  2. Every patch must be installed immediately without testing or safety constraints.
  3. Agents may report healthy while required updates fail or approved exceptions are overdue; verify actual endpoint state.
  4. Enrolled endpoints can never suffer attacks after the patch management tool is installed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Enrollment metrics cannot substitute for sampled system-version and remediation evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A missed check-in creates an operational exception but does not automatically void the policy.

B:

Risk-based scheduling and availability controls can be legitimate parts of due diligence.

D:

Patch controls reduce known exposures but do not guarantee compromise prevention.

Question 24

Which evidence BEST supports that patching due diligence has operated for the entire quarter?

  1. Timestamped endpoint samples, applicable update states, failed-install remediation, and owner-approved expiring exceptions.
  2. A screenshot of the policy posted on the intranet.
  3. The vendor's invoice for the patching platform.
  4. A single administrator states that deployment probably succeeded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Evidence covers the target population and corrective action, not mere policy existence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Availability of a document does not measure operational patch installation.

C:

Payment establishes a purchase, not security outcomes on the fleet.

D:

An uncorroborated assertion cannot support a defensible period-of-operation conclusion.

Question 25

After a merger, both companies issue contradictory incident authority and inconsistent data-retention rules. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Let each acquired division keep its own incident commander and retention schedule indefinitely.
  2. Merge production identities before agreeing on incident authority or evidence retention.
  3. Establish a unified decision-rights and governance framework before consolidating critical platforms.
  4. Publish a common logo and security awareness deck while leaving signoff routes unchanged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Acquired business units need clear ownership and consistent enterprise control objectives. Legacy legal obligations may still differ across jurisdictions and require tailored exceptions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unresolved decision rights and conflicting obligations persist across the merged enterprise.

B:

Technical consolidation before policy decisions amplifies conflicting access and preservation rules.

D:

Common branding does not establish accountable incident or retention governance.

Question 26

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: After a merger, both companies issue contradictory incident authority and inconsistent data-retention rules. The approved response was: Establish a unified decision-rights and governance framework before consolidating critical platforms. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Legacy legal obligations may still differ across jurisdictions and require tailored exceptions.
  2. One corporate policy automatically nullifies all prior jurisdiction-specific legal retention duties.
  3. Merging employee directories guarantees that incident reporting authority is aligned.
  4. The acquiring company may ignore contracts signed by the acquired organization after integration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Acquired business units need clear ownership and consistent enterprise control objectives. An approved RACI and policy inventory resolves conflicting signoff and retention responsibilities.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Existing legal obligations remain applicable and require jurisdiction-specific review and lawful exceptions.

C:

Identity integration cannot resolve conflicting approval mandates or notification procedures.

D:

Contractual commitments may survive acquisition and require legal reconciliation.

Question 27

Management implemented a response after this event: After a merger, both companies issue contradictory incident authority and inconsistent data-retention rules. The response was: Establish a unified decision-rights and governance framework before consolidating critical platforms. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Every acquired team attends the same kickoff, with no approved cross-entity decision matrix.
  2. Only one security logo appears on dashboards while incident tickets still route to different owners.
  3. A new identity directory is operational, but both legacy retention schedules still delete the same records differently.
  4. An approved RACI and policy inventory resolves conflicting signoff and retention responsibilities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An approved RACI and policy inventory resolves conflicting signoff and retention responsibilities. Acquired business units need clear ownership and consistent enterprise control objectives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Attendance does not prove that conflicting signoff and retention authority was resolved.

B:

Visual harmonization does not demonstrate coherent responsibility or escalation.

C:

Authentication migration is not evidence of compliant and unified data-governance decisions.

Question 28

A multinational company copies every optional control in a reference catalog into policy, regardless of business scope. What should the security manager do FIRST?

  1. Install every listed technology without evaluating dependencies or threats.
  2. Delete controls that require operational effort without documenting exceptions.
  3. Perform applicability and risk analysis, then select and justify controls with accountable business approval.
  4. Treat a framework control count as proof of enterprise safety.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reference catalogs require tailoring to obligations, asset value, exposure and risk tolerance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unbounded installation may add cost and risk while missing relevant context.

B:

Unrecorded omissions hide residual exposure and frustrate governance.

D:

Raw counts cannot demonstrate appropriate selection or operating effectiveness.

Question 29

After tailoring a control baseline, a required safeguard cannot be deployed on a legacy medical device. What is the BEST remaining governance action?

  1. Record the gap, assess residual risk, test compensating measures and obtain time-bounded authorized exception.
  2. Remove the safeguard silently from the inventory to make compliance look complete.
  3. Label the device compliant merely because the standard is internationally recognized.
  4. Disable the device immediately without considering patient safety or clinical continuity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Tailoring must retain accountability for constraints, effectiveness and eventual remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Concealment invalidates the risk record and leaves control ownership unclear.

C:

Standards adoption cannot substitute for installed controls and tested exceptions.

D:

An emergency shutdown may cause greater harm; approved risk treatment must consider mission effects.

Question 30

Which assessment artifact BEST proves that a control catalog was correctly tailored?

  1. A screenshot showing all catalog control names copied into a slide.
  2. An installation receipt for every catalog software product.
  3. An email saying the team chose a 'best-practice' framework.
  4. An applicability matrix links each inclusion or exclusion to business scope, risk owner, evidence and compensating controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Traceability demonstrates reasoned selection and justified exceptions against actual requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Copying names does not show application, justification or effectiveness.

B:

Tools do not cover every control type, and procurement does not prove applicability.

C:

Framework popularity is not evidence that individual control choices fit this environment.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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