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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 2

Question 10

A clinical telemetry stream is encrypted, but an attacker can substitute false measurements before the values reach patient-decision software. What control addresses the missing security property?

  1. Increase encryption key length while leaving the receiver unable to verify whether bytes were altered.
  2. Authenticate the data source and integrity-protect each message, rejecting altered or unauthenticated readings before clinical use.
  3. Hide the telemetry dashboard from visitors but accept any correctly formatted values from the network.
  4. Replicate the corrupted telemetry to three servers without checking signatures or tags.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Confidentiality prevents unauthorized observation; origin authentication and integrity validation detect unauthorized modification of measurements, which could affect patient safety.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stronger confidentiality does not itself validate data origin or detect substituted messages.

C:

UI access controls do not stop an attacker able to forge messages before ingestion.

D:

Replication can make false readings more available, not more authentic or trustworthy.

Question 11

A clinical team implements message authentication codes on telemetry. Which remaining security dependency is central to maintaining the claimed integrity protection?

  1. Assume that any message with a correctly shaped field name came from a trusted clinical device.
  2. Keep the MAC key public because encryption of the channel already prevents key misuse.
  3. Skip verification of incoming tags whenever the telemetry format looks familiar.
  4. Protect key issuance, separation and rotation so attackers cannot produce valid authentication tags for forged readings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An integrity mechanism is only trustworthy if signers and their keys cannot be freely impersonated. Key compromise can render correctly verified malicious data plausible.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Data format alone is not cryptographic source authentication.

B:

A public shared MAC secret would let attackers forge valid tags even on confidential connections.

C:

Not validating the tag defeats the integrity control at the actual trust boundary.

Question 12

An application team claims it prevents false medical readings from entering a safety-critical workflow. Which test BEST verifies the new integrity control?

  1. Encrypted packet captures reveal no plaintext, but injected false readings are still accepted.
  2. A modified or forged telemetry message fails source/integrity validation, while a valid authorized reading is processed normally.
  3. A dashboard displays the right units for normal data but no tampering attempt is tested.
  4. The network has redundant switches, yet forged samples reach the clinical decision engine.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Positive and negative probes test the authenticity of data at ingestion, rather than just confidentiality of transit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

No plaintext proves confidentiality, not that altered messages are rejected.

C:

Formatting and happy-path rendering do not validate integrity checking.

D:

Network availability does not enforce authenticity of the measurement content.

Question 13

A broker disputes having approved a high-value transfer; shared account passwords prevent reliable attribution. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Keep using the shared broker account, adding an immutable approval-log timestamp.
  2. Require individual strong identities and transaction-bound digital signatures with protected signing keys and audit evidence.
  3. Attach a symmetric message authentication code generated with one key held by every broker.
  4. Ask each trader to email a plain-text approval after the payment executes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A shared secret cannot convincingly attribute a particular authorization to one actor. Key custody and legally applicable signature procedures remain material even after signatures are enabled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A timestamp proves when a shared credential was used, not which broker actually authorized this payment.

C:

A shared HMAC key may prove group-level integrity but cannot provide an individually attributable signer.

D:

An unbound email can be spoofed or altered and provides weaker transaction-specific signing evidence.

Question 14

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A broker disputes having approved a high-value transfer; shared account passwords prevent reliable attribution. The approved response was: Require individual strong identities and transaction-bound digital signatures with protected signing keys and audit evidence. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Possession of any valid digital signature guarantees that the signer was legally authorized to approve the transfer.
  2. An audit log showing a signature is sufficient even if multiple people can export and use the private key.
  3. Key custody and legally applicable signature procedures remain material even after signatures are enabled.
  4. Correct signature verification proves exactly when the signer personally reviewed the transaction.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A shared secret cannot convincingly attribute a particular authorization to one actor. A disputed transaction has a verifiable signer, message integrity, timestamp context and admissible audit trail.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cryptographic authenticity does not by itself establish delegated signing authority or legal process compliance.

B:

A compromised or shared signing key undermines the claimed individual attribution.

D:

A cryptographic verification alone does not demonstrate human intent or an independently trusted signing time.

Question 15

Management implemented a response after this event: A broker disputes having approved a high-value transfer; shared account passwords prevent reliable attribution. The response was: Require individual strong identities and transaction-bound digital signatures with protected signing keys and audit evidence. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A disputed transaction has a verifiable signer, message integrity, timestamp context and admissible audit trail.
  2. The shared account shows a successful login immediately before the disputed approval.
  3. The transfer has a checksum and an internal log entry, but no verifiable signer identity.
  4. All staff completed electronic-signature training, but no signed transaction artifacts are retained.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A disputed transaction has a verifiable signer, message integrity, timestamp context and admissible audit trail. A shared secret cannot convincingly attribute a particular authorization to one actor.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A shared account activity record cannot distinguish individual brokers or bind one to the approved transfer bytes.

C:

A checksum only detects some changes; it does not establish a unique accountable human approver.

D:

Training coverage is not evidence that this transaction has an attributable and verifiable authorization.

Question 16

A disaster surge overwhelms an otherwise secure portal that passes confidentiality and integrity tests. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Encrypt the existing portal database with a longer encryption key.
  2. Raise the log-retention period without measuring concurrent requests or dependency bottlenecks.
  3. Show users a static maintenance banner while keeping a single overloaded service instance.
  4. Engineer measured availability capacity and failover requirements based on critical business workflows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CIA availability requires usable service when authorized users need it, not merely protected data. A standby site may still depend on a failed third party; dependency recovery must be included in availability testing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption helps confidentiality but cannot add serving capacity or failover when demand surges.

B:

Longer retention may aid forensics but does not establish usable availability during the projected event.

C:

A banner communicates an outage but does not maintain critical business transactions.

Question 17

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A disaster surge overwhelms an otherwise secure portal that passes confidentiality and integrity tests. The approved response was: Engineer measured availability capacity and failover requirements based on critical business workflows. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Failover servers eliminate the need to test the portal’s identity provider and upstream payment dependencies.
  2. A standby site may still depend on a failed third party; dependency recovery must be included in availability testing.
  3. Passing confidentiality and integrity checks means availability targets are satisfied without load testing.
  4. A standby machine in the same power zone guarantees continuity for a region-wide failure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

CIA availability requires usable service when authorized users need it, not merely protected data. Fault and load tests demonstrate business transactions within approved recovery and latency objectives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared dependencies can still stop transactions even when application nodes survive.

C:

Data protection controls do not verify usable capacity, latency or recovery time.

D:

Correlated infrastructure dependencies can defeat nominally redundant servers.

Question 18

Management implemented a response after this event: A disaster surge overwhelms an otherwise secure portal that passes confidentiality and integrity tests. The response was: Engineer measured availability capacity and failover requirements based on critical business workflows. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Fault and load tests demonstrate business transactions within approved recovery and latency objectives.
  2. A diagram depicts two application instances but has no measured user transactions under failure.
  3. The portal has a valid TLS certificate, even though surge-time requests still time out.
  4. Ops reports 100 percent daily backup-job success but has never run a failover exercise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Fault and load tests demonstrate business transactions within approved recovery and latency objectives. CIA availability requires usable service when authorized users need it, not merely protected data.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A topology drawing cannot establish transaction completion within an agreed recovery objective.

C:

Transport authenticity does not demonstrate business-service availability at peak load.

D:

Completed backups do not establish live transaction throughput or restoration time.

Question 19

Multiple product teams sign off on material cyber risks using different financial-loss limits. The board wants consistent executive oversight before individual risk owners make acceptance decisions. What is the BEST governance action?

  1. Allow each firewall administrator to define an independent enterprise risk appetite for the systems they maintain.
  2. Ask the security testing vendor to set financial loss limits for all business units without executive involvement.
  3. Require the security function to accept all residual risks, even when they exceed approved business tolerance.
  4. Establish board-aligned risk appetite, common escalation thresholds and delegated authority boundaries for business risk owners, supported by security impact analysis.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

NIST CSF Govern distinguishes risk strategy and management oversight from implementation. Consistent risk thresholds and delegated decision rights must precede isolated acceptances; individual risk owners still decide within those authorized bounds.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technical administration is not authority to define enterprise risk tolerance; this would perpetuate inconsistent thresholds.

B:

An external assessor provides exposure evidence, not board-approved business appetite or delegated authority.

C:

Security risk advice does not transfer ownership of the enterprise risk appetite away from accountable business leadership.

Question 20

An executive risk owner signs a time-limited acceptance for a ransomware exposure based on current controls and forecast impact. What is the MOST important condition that prevents this approval from becoming a permanent waiver?

  1. Assume the decision is irrevocable until the next external audit, regardless of new incidents.
  2. Transfer the decision to system administrators by renaming the risk item as an IT exception.
  3. Define reassessment triggers, expiration, monitoring and escalation when threat likelihood or business impact changes.
  4. Stop measuring exposure as soon as the acceptance document is signed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Risk acceptance is bounded by assumptions. Material control failures, new exploitation or changes in business impact require review by accountable management rather than indefinite reliance on old approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A change in risk conditions invalidates indefinite reliance on the original assessment and may require immediate reassessment.

B:

Changing labels or owners without delegated approval does not reallocate risk accountability.

D:

Monitoring is essential to determine whether the accepted exposure remains within approved appetite.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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