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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 13

Question 120

Management implemented a response after this event: Contractors carry unencrypted removable drives containing internal designs between sites. The response was: Restrict portable-media authorization and require managed encryption and custody records. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A spreadsheet lists drive serial numbers but cannot show encryption state or custodian transfers.
  2. The contractor acknowledges a policy while an exercised missing-drive incident cannot identify the assigned owner.
  3. A drive lock icon is displayed, but no controlled lost-media exercise or key-management record exists.
  4. A lost-media exercise verifies encryption status, owner assignment and incident escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A lost-media exercise verifies encryption status, owner assignment and incident escalation. Physical portability magnifies loss and disclosure exposure beyond ordinary workstation storage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Asset tracking alone does not prove protection or custody of the contents.

B:

Training acceptance is not operational evidence of managed custody.

C:

A UI indicator alone cannot establish enforceable encryption and incident response readiness.

Question 121

A cloud processor proposes reusing a customer's personal records for its own advertising campaign. What is the security manager's BEST governance response?

  1. Allow repurposing whenever technical encryption is enabled.
  2. Let the processor decide all lawful uses because it hosts the infrastructure.
  3. Require processing only under the controller's documented instructions and lawful contractual purposes.
  4. Delete the processing contract but keep the original data-sharing arrangement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A processor's service access does not create independent authority to determine new purposes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption does not create legal authorization to change processing purpose.

B:

Infrastructure custody does not automatically confer controller purpose authority.

D:

Removing the agreed instructions weakens rather than strengthens governance.

Question 122

A processor follows the approved purpose and contract. Which remaining risk MOST requires attention?

  1. Every technical support staff member must automatically become a controller.
  2. Encryption makes location and onward-transfer obligations inapplicable.
  3. An unapproved subprocessor can receive onward access or transfer data outside authorized boundaries.
  4. An authorized controller can never use an outside processor.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Contracted primary processing still requires subprocessor authorization and data-flow oversight.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Employment role does not determine who sets processing purposes and means.

B:

Cryptography does not erase jurisdictional or contractual obligations.

D:

Processing under documented controller instructions is permissible within applicable requirements.

Question 123

Which evidence BEST demonstrates a processor is honoring controller instructions?

  1. A security brochure claims 'privacy-first' without naming data uses.
  2. A database report shows the number of CPU cores used.
  3. Traceable processing logs and subprocessors/data flows mapped to documented instructions and contractual purpose limits.
  4. The vendor's general staff handbook promises to be careful.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tests connect observed operations and recipients with authority granted by the controller.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Marketing language cannot prove adherence to documented controller instructions.

B:

Capacity does not establish processing purpose, recipient restrictions or lawful authority.

D:

A generic promise cannot trace actual processing or onward transfers to controller approvals.

Question 124

A loan platform retains applicant identity documents indefinitely after the approved retention period has elapsed. A small subset is under legal hold. What lifecycle control is MOST appropriate?

  1. Delete every applicant file immediately, including records subject to active legal hold.
  2. Keep every historical application forever because one legal hold exists for a few applicants.
  3. Encrypt expired records but keep them indefinitely without a retention decision.
  4. Apply owner-approved retention and verified disposal to expired records, while preserving explicitly scoped legal-hold items under protected access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Retention minimization limits exposure and fulfills business/legal obligations; a legitimate hold suspends routine disposal only for covered evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broad indiscriminate deletion can violate preservation obligations and destroy necessary evidence.

B:

A narrowly scoped preservation duty does not justify unlimited storage of unrelated sensitive data.

C:

At-rest encryption is not a substitute for necessary disposal and purpose-limited retention.

Question 125

A records team implements automated deletion after legal retention, excluding named cases under active litigation hold. What governance risk still needs periodic review?

  1. The hold’s scope, continuing authority and release conditions must be reconciled so expired records are preserved only while justified.
  2. Any record with an expired calendar date must be destroyed even while under a valid hold.
  3. Once a case is placed on hold no owner need ever review whether the hold remains effective.
  4. The existence of disk encryption makes data retention rules irrelevant.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Legal holds should prevent destruction of necessary evidence without becoming indefinite unbounded retention for all affected records.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The active preservation obligation can override ordinary retention expiry for specifically in-scope data.

C:

A hold requires authorized administration and eventual release decisions rather than automatic permanence.

D:

Encryption reduces disclosure risk but does not eliminate collection, retention or disposal duties.

Question 126

A company claims its applicant-data retention program properly deletes expired records and preserves litigation evidence. Which audit sample BEST proves this?

  1. Report total storage in gigabytes without checking retention dates or hold flags.
  2. Find a deleted expired file but never examine whether held records survived.
  3. Keep all records indefinitely and report zero accidental deletions.
  4. Trace sampled records from classification and expiry through documented deletion, and separately verify legally held records remain preserved until authorized release.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A two-sided audit proves both disposal of unnecessary sensitive data and non-destruction of held evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A capacity trend cannot demonstrate record-level compliance with differing legal obligations.

B:

One deletion test covers only disposal, not the equally binding preservation exception.

C:

Avoiding destruction entirely defeats data minimization and does not prove normal expiry controls operate.

Question 127

An AI model combines regulated records from five sources and cannot identify the original consent or data owners. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Remove explicit names from model input files and assume all original processing restrictions disappear.
  2. Use a single informal model data owner without tracking the five contributing sources.
  3. Grant model engineers raw access to all datasets until the first complaint identifies a privacy issue.
  4. Record provenance and transformations through the data lifecycle before reusing the output.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Lineage links derived information to owners, purposes and applicable restrictions. A dataset name alone cannot prove purpose eligibility after transformations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Derived datasets can still reveal protected people or retain purpose and provenance obligations.

B:

One label cannot reconstruct source consent, contractual limits or transformations.

C:

Broad access does not establish source eligibility and increases exposure during experiments.

Question 128

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An AI model combines regulated records from five sources and cannot identify the original consent or data owners. The approved response was: Record provenance and transformations through the data lifecycle before reusing the output. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An output filename uniquely proves that the underlying records were lawfully collected for model training.
  2. A dataset name alone cannot prove purpose eligibility after transformations.
  3. Removing direct identifiers removes every consent and transfer constraint on downstream derived features.
  4. Once a dataset has been merged, every contributor’s separate retention requirement can be ignored.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Lineage links derived information to owners, purposes and applicable restrictions. A sampled prediction input can be traced back to its authorized source and processing purpose.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A filename is not a chain of origin, consent and transformation evidence.

C:

Purpose and processing restrictions may persist after transformation and partial deidentification.

D:

Lineage is required to apply source-specific legal and contractual obligations.

Question 129

Management implemented a response after this event: An AI model combines regulated records from five sources and cannot identify the original consent or data owners. The response was: Record provenance and transformations through the data lifecycle before reusing the output. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The model gives accurate predictions but auditors cannot trace input features back to approved source use.
  2. A consolidated dataset has a friendly name but no record of contributed sources or transformations.
  3. Engineers count five source datasets without connecting individual sampled features to their permissible origins.
  4. A sampled prediction input can be traced back to its authorized source and processing purpose.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A sampled prediction input can be traced back to its authorized source and processing purpose. Lineage links derived information to owners, purposes and applicable restrictions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Model accuracy says nothing about data origin and authorized processing.

B:

A label cannot establish consent, owner decisions or processing eligibility.

C:

A source count is not end-to-end provenance traceability.

Question 130

A SaaS backup job silently copies EU customer data to a region outside its approved data map. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Constrain only the primary database region while allowing backups and logs to replicate globally.
  2. Rely on the SaaS vendor’s marketing statement about European hosting without inspecting replication routes.
  3. Track primary, replica, backup and logging locations, then constrain processing to approved jurisdictions.
  4. Encrypt the overseas backup but do not assess whether that jurisdiction is permitted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Residency includes backups and operational derivatives, not merely the primary database. Region pinning may not govern external support exports or vendor subprocessors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A residency decision must cover operational derivatives, not just the main datastore.

B:

A generic hosting claim cannot verify the actual location of all regulated copies.

D:

Confidentiality controls cannot replace geographic and transfer authorization.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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