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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 15

Question 140

The team extends key retention through the legal archive period. What risk STILL must be addressed?

  1. Key version identifiers never matter if a root key name exists.
  2. Every archive must be publicly readable to count as retained.
  3. A legally retained file automatically becomes unnecessary the day its cipher rotates.
  4. Archived ciphertext may rely on a missing key version or damaged key backup despite the written retention policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Key-lifecycle compliance requires independent recoverability and backup custody tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotated data keys and versions can be necessary to decrypt old records.

B:

Retention calls for controlled recoverability, not unrestricted access.

C:

Key rotation does not end the underlying legal records obligation.

Question 141

Which result BEST demonstrates compliant long-term encrypted archive retention?

  1. A randomly sampled old archive restores with correct data and lawful access using separately recoverable versioned keys.
  2. The storage console shows seven-year bucket retention without attempting decryption.
  3. A key management screen lists one current active key.
  4. The team can decrypt an archive created yesterday only.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

End-to-end recovery proves both durable records and usable authorized decryption over time.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Object presence does not establish the availability of correct decryption keys.

C:

Current-key existence does not prove access to keys protecting historical ciphertext.

D:

A fresh file does not validate the oldest retained key versions or formats.

Question 142

A life-critical system uses an unsupported network appliance that cannot receive security patches. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Immediately switch off the life-critical appliance without coordinating the safety owner or business fallback.
  2. Leave the unsupported controller on unrestricted networks until a vendor patch becomes available.
  3. Treat an endpoint antivirus installation as a permanent substitute for a supported replacement.
  4. Assess business and security impact, isolate exposure and fund a controlled supported replacement plan.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

EOL/EOS status raises vulnerability and maintenance risks, not automatically a mandate for unplanned shutdown. Compensating isolation must be monitored and cannot substitute indefinitely for supported operation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unplanned removal of an essential system can create unacceptable safety and availability impact.

B:

Unsupported software may have no patch path; temporary exposure controls and replacement are needed.

C:

One compensating product cannot eliminate all lifecycle and unpatched vulnerabilities.

Question 143

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A life-critical system uses an unsupported network appliance that cannot receive security patches. The approved response was: Assess business and security impact, isolate exposure and fund a controlled supported replacement plan. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Compensating isolation must be monitored and cannot substitute indefinitely for supported operation.
  2. A temporary network firewall can be presumed effective indefinitely without monitoring or a replacement date.
  3. End of support always requires immediate power-off regardless of human-safety consequences.
  4. An unsupported product has no security risk as long as its last published patch is installed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

EOL/EOS status raises vulnerability and maintenance risks, not automatically a mandate for unplanned shutdown. A time-bound risk plan and verified segmentation protect the device until replacement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compensating isolation is time-bounded risk reduction, not a permanent supported lifecycle solution.

C:

Business and safety impact require controlled risk-based transition rather than automatic shutdown.

D:

Future defects and unavailable vendor fixes remain significant exposure.

Question 144

Management implemented a response after this event: A life-critical system uses an unsupported network appliance that cannot receive security patches. The response was: Assess business and security impact, isolate exposure and fund a controlled supported replacement plan. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A firewall rule is written in a plan but no test confirms the critical device is unreachable from untrusted networks.
  2. A service outage begins immediately after the old appliance is disconnected, with no safety-approved fallback.
  3. The vendor support contract expired but management never approved a replacement milestone or monitoring owner.
  4. A time-bound risk plan and verified segmentation protect the device until replacement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A time-bound risk plan and verified segmentation protect the device until replacement. EOL/EOS status raises vulnerability and maintenance risks, not automatically a mandate for unplanned shutdown.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Paper compensations cannot prove a temporary mitigation operates.

B:

Control removal that breaks essential operation is not a successful risk treatment.

C:

The expiration notice does not evidence a bounded remediation plan.

Question 145

A team wants to wipe a database server that still feeds a weekly regulatory reconciliation process. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Destroy the legacy database as soon as its final backup completes, without discovering downstream financial consumers.
  2. Remove application accounts and network access before confirming the regulatory reporting job’s replacement.
  3. Verify downstream dependencies, legal retention, final export and business signoff before sanitization.
  4. Delete the server because its operating system is obsolete, regardless of unexpired retention obligations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Decommissioning requires proving that the asset and its data are no longer required. A successful nightly backup does not establish every external consumer has migrated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A backup cannot demonstrate that reconciliation dependencies have migrated.

B:

Premature shutdown can interrupt legally required dependent processes.

D:

Lifecycle decommission requires dependency and preservation authorization before destruction.

Question 146

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A team wants to wipe a database server that still feeds a weekly regulatory reconciliation process. The approved response was: Verify downstream dependencies, legal retention, final export and business signoff before sanitization. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A completed database backup proves no external service still relies on its production interface.
  2. A successful nightly backup does not establish every external consumer has migrated.
  3. A decommission approval by infrastructure alone waives all legal retention or business signoff requirements.
  4. An application shutdown automatically proves that its data is no longer required for historical reconciliation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Decommissioning requires proving that the asset and its data are no longer required. Retirement evidence includes dependency checks, reconciliation and approved destruction logs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backups establish recoverability of data, not completion of migration for downstream consumers.

C:

Owners and legal authorities may have duties outside infrastructure control.

D:

Required records and scheduled reporting may survive service retirement.

Question 147

Management implemented a response after this event: A team wants to wipe a database server that still feeds a weekly regulatory reconciliation process. The response was: Verify downstream dependencies, legal retention, final export and business signoff before sanitization. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Backup jobs succeed but the first weekly reconciliation after deletion fails.
  2. Retirement evidence includes dependency checks, reconciliation and approved destruction logs.
  3. The VM appears powered off while legal retention and final export approvals are missing.
  4. A ticket says the database is retired but downstream job owners have not signed off on migrated inputs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Retirement evidence includes dependency checks, reconciliation and approved destruction logs. Decommissioning requires proving that the asset and its data are no longer required.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backups did not validate the critical downstream dependency.

C:

Technical shutdown is not full authorized data and service retirement.

D:

Ticket closure cannot confirm that business consumers no longer need the original system.

Question 148

Employees can upload confidential source files to personal webmail despite endpoint disk encryption. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Rely solely on workstation disk encryption to stop authorized users emailing source files to personal addresses.
  2. Enforce context-aware DLP controls at relevant egress channels with approved business exceptions.
  3. Apply a confidentiality watermark while leaving external webmail upload channels unrestricted.
  4. Block personal webmail only for guest Wi-Fi while corporate endpoints still upload data over other networks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Encryption at rest does not stop an authorized user from disclosing data to an external service. DLP classification false positives need tuning and accountable exception handling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

At-rest encryption does not govern authorized decryption followed by exfiltration.

C:

Labels alone cannot prevent copying data to unauthorized destinations.

D:

A narrow network rule leaves the actual endpoint egress route available.

Question 149

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Employees can upload confidential source files to personal webmail despite endpoint disk encryption. The approved response was: Enforce context-aware DLP controls at relevant egress channels with approved business exceptions. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. DLP can be deployed with zero false positives and no business exception path.
  2. Full-disk encryption prevents users from sending plaintext files after normal login.
  3. One DLP keyword rule detects all source-code disclosures regardless of format or protocol.
  4. DLP classification false positives need tuning and accountable exception handling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Encryption at rest does not stop an authorized user from disclosing data to an external service. An unapproved upload is blocked while documented legitimate transfers remain possible.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensitive-content classification requires tuning and accountable handling of authorized transfers.

B:

Endpoints decrypt authorized content for users, so separate exfiltration controls remain necessary.

C:

Content transformation and alternative channels require contextual and layered controls.

Question 150

Management implemented a response after this event: Employees can upload confidential source files to personal webmail despite endpoint disk encryption. The response was: Enforce context-aware DLP controls at relevant egress channels with approved business exceptions. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The corporate laptops show disk-encryption compliance while unapproved webmail uploads still complete.
  2. A DLP rule exists but sample legitimate transfers are blocked and personal-email exports are still allowed.
  3. An unapproved upload is blocked while documented legitimate transfers remain possible.
  4. Employees acknowledge a classification policy while test confidential uploads to a personal account succeed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An unapproved upload is blocked while documented legitimate transfers remain possible. Encryption at rest does not stop an authorized user from disclosing data to an external service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

At-rest encryption does not prove outbound sensitive-data restriction.

B:

Misconfigured enforcement fails both data protection and sanctioned workflow requirements.

D:

Awareness metrics cannot demonstrate effective egress denial.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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